Preparing for the ACT 2024

2024

2025

Preparing for

the A C T

Test

What’s Inside

Full-length practice A C T test,

including the optional writing test

Information about the multiple-choice and

writing sections

Test-taking strategies

What to expect on test day

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www.act.org

Contents

A Message toStudents 2

Overview of theA C T 2

Test-Taking Strategies 3

Prohibited Behavior at the Test Center 5

Content of the A C T Sections 6

Taking the Practice Tests 12

Practice Multiple-Choice Sections 13

Practice Writing Test 54

Practice Answer Document 57

How to Score the Multiple-Choice

Tests 65

Scoring the Practice Writing Test 71

Next Steps 74

A Message toStudents

This document is an important rst step as you get ready for college and your

career.

The information here is intended to help you do your best on the A C T to gain

admission to colleges and universities. Included are helpful hints and test-taking

strategies, as well as a complete practice A C T, with “retired” questions from earlier

test subjects given on previous test dates at A C T test centers. Also featured are a

practice writing test, a sample answer document, answer keys, and self-scoring

instructions.

Read this document carefully and take the practice tests well before test day. That

way, you will be familiar with the test subjects, what they measure, and strategies

you can use to do your best on test day.

You may also want to consider The Ofcial A C T

Self-Paced Course, Powered by

Kaplan

to learn test content and strategies in a virtual classroom. To view all of our

test preparation options, go to www.act.org/the-act/testprep.

Overview of theA C T

The A C T test consists of four multiple-choice

sections—English, mathematics, reading, and

science—with an optional writing section.

Some colleges and universities require or

accept A C T writing scores, so you may consider

taking the writing section.

Test Questions Minutes per Test

English 75 45

Mathematics 60 60

Reading 40 35

Science 40 35

Writing

(optional)

1 essay 40

After the science test you should expect to take

a shorter, multiple-choice test covering one of

the previous subject areas. The results of the

fth test help develop future test questions and

will not be reected on your scores, so please

try your best.

Test-Taking Strategies

Test Strategies for the A C T

Each multiple-choice section contains

questions with either four or ve answers from

which you are to choose the correct or best

answer.

If you do not complete all your sections and

want to test again, you will need to re-register

and pay for a new test date. Once you access

test content, you cannot request a Test Date

Change.

Strategies to help you prepare for the

A C T

Get familiar with the content of the

sections.

Review the information in this document.

Note which content areas make up a large

proportion of the sections. The topics included

in each content area are examples of possible

topics; they do not include all possibilities.

Update your knowledge and skills in the

content areas.

Review content areas that you have studied

but are not fresh in your mind. Refresh your

knowledge in the content areas that make up

large portions of the test.

Study content areas you are not familiar with.

If some content areas of the A C T are unfamiliar

to you, consider taking coursework in those

areas before you take the test.

Tips for Taking the Multiple-Choice

Sections

Pace yourself.

It is important that you have enough time to

read the passages/questions and gure out

your responses. For each section, subtract

the number of minutes you estimate you will

spend skimming the passages or reading the

information provided, then divide the total

number of remaining minutes allowed by

the number of questions to determine the

estimated time you should spend on each

question. If possible, spend less time on each

question and use the remaining time allowed

for a section to review your work and return to

the questions in that section that were most

difcult for you.

The time limits set for each section give nearly

everyone enough time to nish all questions.

However, you will want to pace yourself to avoid

spending too much time on one passage or

puzzling over an answer to a specic problem.

Go on to other questions and come back if

there is time.

Read the directions carefully.

Before you begin each section, read the

directions carefully.

The English, reading, and science sections

ask for the best answer. Read and consider

all of the answer choices and choose the

answer that best responds to the question.

The mathematics section asks for the

correct answer. You may want to work out

the answer you feel is correct and look for

it among the choices given. If your answer

is not among the choices provided, reread

the question and consider all the answer

choices.

Read each question carefully.

You need to understand exactly what each

question asks. Some questions will require you

to go through several steps to nd the correct

or best answer, while others can be answered

more quickly.

Answer the easy questions rst.

A good strategy is to answer the easy questions

and skip the questions you nd difcult. After

answering the easy questions, go back and

answer the more difcult questions if you have

time.

Use logic on more difcult questions.

When you return to the more difcult

questions, try to use logic to eliminate incorrect

answers. Compare the answer choices to

each other and note how they differ. Such

differences may provide clues as to what the

question requires. Eliminate as many incorrect

answers as you can, then make an educated

guess from the remaining answers.

Answer every question.

Your scores in the sections will be based only

on the number of questions that you answer

correctly; there is no penalty for guessing. Try to

answer every question within the time allowed

for each section.

Review your work.

If there is time left after you have answered every

question in a section, go back and check your

work. You will not be allowed to go back to any

other section or mark responses to a section

after time has been called in that section.

When testing on an answer

document:

Be precise in choosing your responses.

If you are taking the A C T on paper, make sure

that you properly select the desired answer on

your answer document. Marks on your answer

document that extend beyond the intended

oval may be scored as incorrect.

Erase completely.

If you want to change a multiple-choice answer

on paper, make sure you erase completely. Do

not cross out answers or use correction uid or

tape; you must erase. Smudges or unintended

marks may cause errors in scoring.

Get Ready

Prepare well in advance for the A C T.

Know what to expect on test day. Review

this document and visit www.actstudent.org

for more information, including an overview

of each test subject, multiple test prep

resources, and a comprehensive test day

checklist.

Take the practice tests in the order they are

shown in this booklet, time yourself, and

review your responses using the answer keys.

Get plenty of rest the night before the tests.

Note: Most procedures in this document refer to

testing on a National test date at an A C T test

center (within the United States, US territories,

or Puerto Rico). Procedures may differ slightly if

you take a different administration of the A C T

test.

On Test Day

Report on Time

For National test dates, you must report to

your assigned test center by the time stated

on your admission ticket (usually 8:00 a.m.). If

you are late, you will not be admitted to test.

If your ticket does not list a specic test room,

the test staff or posted signs will direct you.

What to Bring

A printed copy of your admission ticket. Your

ticket contains important information that

helps connect your answer document to the

registration on le. If you have lost your ticket,

you can print another through your MyACT

account. If you do not bring your ticket on test

day, your scores may be delayed.

Acceptable photo identication. You will not

be permitted to test if your ID does not meet

A C T requirements. See A C T requirements for

ID on your ticket or at www.act.org/the-act/id.

Number 2 pencil. Bring sharpened No. 2

pencils and good erasers (no mechanical

pencils or ink pens). Do not bring any other

writing instruments. You will not be allowed

to use them.

Note: International test centers are provided

approved whiteboards and erasable markers.

Watch or other timing device. You may bring

a watch to pace yourself, but it may not have

an alarm. Your watch or other timing device

must be removed and placed on your desk

while in the test room, so that it remains

visible to staff during the test. If your alarm

sounds during testing, you’ll be dismissed

and your answers will not be scored.

Calculator. If you wish to use a calculator

(use of a calculator is not required), it is your

responsibility to ensure the calculator is

permitted according to the A C T Calculator

Policy.

Snacks. You may consume snacks and drinks

outside the test room during the break.

What NOT to Bring

Textbooks, foreign language or other

dictionaries, scratch paper, notes, or other

aids

Highlighter pens, colored pens or pencils, or

correction uid/tape

Any electronic device, other than a permitted

calculator

Reading material

In the Test Room

Test staff will direct you to a seat. If you need

a left-handed desk, tell the staff as you enter.

Do not leave the test room after you have

been admitted.

Only pencils, erasers, a permitted calculator,

your watch (if brought to the test center),

and your paper ticket will be allowed on your

desk.

You will be required to put all other personal

belongings away.

Reporting time for the test will be 8:00 a.m.

Testing will begin as soon as all examinees

who are present at 8:00 a.m. are checked in

and seated.

Listen carefully to all directions read by the

test staff.

It is important that you follow all directions

carefully.

You will normally be dismissed at about

12:35 p.m. if you take the A C T (no writing), or

at about 1:35 p.m. if you take the A C T with

writing.

For Students Approved to Test at

National Test Center With One and

One-Half Time

Testing with one and one-half time is available

on the multiple-choice and/or writing sections

for students with diagnosed disabilities and/or

limited English prociency.

If you are approved for one and one-half time

at a National test center, you will have 50%

additional time to complete each section.

The A C T:

Test Questions Minutes per Test

English 75 70

Mathematics 60 90

Reading 40 55

Science 40 55

Writing (optional) 1 essay 60

After Testing

Voiding Your Test on Test Day

If you have to leave the test center before

completing all sections, you must decide

whether or not you want your test scored and

then inform the test staff of your decision. If you

do not, your test will be scored.

If you do not complete all your sections and

want to test again, you will need to re-register

and pay for a new test date. Once you access

test content, you cannot request a Test Date

Change.

Testing More Than Once

If you wish to take the test again to increase

your scores, A C T will calculate and report a

superscore for students who have taken the

A C T test more than once. This gives colleges

the option to use the student’s best scores

from all test administrations, rather than scores

from just one sitting, in their admission and

scholarship decisions.

For information about superscoring, see www.

act.org/the-act/superscore.

For more information about retaking the A C T,

see www.act.org/the-act/retaking.

Testing More Than Once In the Same

Administration

You may not receive scores from more than

one test taken during a scheduled National

or International test date. For example, you

may test on Saturday, on an authorized non-

Saturday date, or on a rescheduled test date—

but not on more than one of those days on a

particular test date. If you are admitted and

allowed to test a second time on a particular

test date, we will report only the scores from

the rst test. The second set of scores will be

canceled without refund.

Requesting a Copy of Your

TestQuestions and Answers

On certain test dates, you may order (for an

additional fee) a copy of the multiple-choice

test questions used to determine your scores, a

list of your answers, and the answer key. If you

took the writing section, you will also receive a

copy of the writing prompt, scoring guidelines,

and the scores assigned to your essay.

This service is not available for all test dates and

is available only for National testing or Special

testing in the United States, US Territories, and

Puerto Rico. Restrictions apply.

If you are interested in this service, check www.

act.org/the-act/tir for more detail.

Prohibited Behavior at

the Test Center

A complete list of the prohibited behaviors was

provided during the registration process. The

following behaviors can also result in dismissal.

Please be reminded of the following:

You may not ll in or alter responses to any

multiple-choice questions or continue to

write or alter the essay after time has been

called. This includes xing stray marks.

You may not look at any section of the test

outside of the designated time for that test.

You may not access an electronic device

(other than your testing computer and

mouse, when testing online) at any time

during testing or during breaks. All other

devices must be powered off and placed out

of sight from the time you are admitted to

the test room until you are dismissed.

You may not give or receive assistance by

any means. This includes looking at another

person’s test.

The test is condential and remains so even

after the exam is complete. You may not

remove any materials from the test room.

You may not discuss or share test questions,

answers, or test form identication numbers

during test administration, during breaks, or

after the test.

You may not disclose test questions or

answers in any way or at any time, including

through social media, in whole or in part.

You may not eat, drink, or use reading

materials in the test room.

If you are observed or suspected of engaging in

prohibited behavior, you will be dismissed and

your test will not be scored.

Content of the A C T

Sections

English Section

The English section consists of several essays,

or passages, each followed by a set of multiple-

choice questions.

Some questions refer to the passage as

a whole, or to underlined or highlighted

portions of the passage and offer several

alternatives to that portion. You decide which

answer choice is most appropriate in the

context of the passage.

Many questions offer “NO CHANGE” to the

passage as one of the choices.

The English section puts you in the position of a

writer who makes decisions to revise and edit a

text. Essays in different genres provide a variety

of rhetorical situations. These passages are

chosen for their appropriateness in assessing

writing and language skills and to reect

students’ interests and experiences.

Four scores are reported for the English

section: a score for the section overall and

three reporting category scores based on

specic knowledge and skills. The approximate

percentage of the section devoted to each

reporting category is:

Production of Writing (29–32%)

This category requires you to apply your

understanding of the purpose and focus of a

piece of writing.

Topic Development: Demonstrate an

understanding of, and control over, the

rhetorical aspects of texts. Identify the

purposes of parts of texts, determine

whether a text or part of a text has met its

intended goal, and evaluate the relevance of

material in terms of a text’s focus.

Organization, Unity, and Cohesion: Use

various strategies to ensure that a text is

logically organized, ows smoothly, and has an

effective introduction and conclusion.

Knowledge of Language (15–17%)

These questions require you to demonstrate

effective language use through ensuring

precise and concise word choice and

maintaining consistency in style and tone.

Conventions of Standard English (52–

55%)

These questions require you to apply an

understanding of the conventions of standard

English grammar, usage, and mechanics to

revise and edit text.

Sentence Structure and Formation: Apply

understanding of sentence structure and

formation in a text and make revisions to

improve the writing.

Punctuation: Recognize common problems

with standard English punctuation and make

revisions to improve the writing.

Usage: Recognize common problems with

standard English usage in a text and make

revisions to improve the writing.

Tips for Taking the English Section

Be aware of the writing style used in each

passage.

The passages cover a variety of topics and are

written in a variety of styles. It is important

that you take into account the writing style

used in each passage. When responding to a

question, be sure to understand the context

of the question. Consider how the sentence

containing an underlined or highlighted

portion ts in with the surrounding sentences

and into the passage as a whole.

Examine the underlined or highlighted

portions of the passage.

Before responding to a question with an

underlined or highlighted portion, carefully

examine what is underlined or highlighted in the

text. Consider the elements of writing included in

each underlined or highlighted portion.

Some questions will ask you to base your

decision on some specic element of writing,

such as the tone or emphasis the text should

convey.

Some questions will ask you to choose the

alternative to the underlined or highlighted

portion that is NOT or LEAST acceptable.

The answer choices for each question will

contain changes in one or more of those

elements of writing.

Be aware of questions with no underlined

portions.

You will be asked some questions about a

section of the passage or about the passage as

a whole, in light of a given rhetorical situation.

Questions of this type are often identied

by a question number in a box located at

the appropriate point in the passage or by a

highlighted asterisk in brackets.

Questions about the entire passage are placed

at the end of the passage. For paper testing,

these questions are introduced by a horizontal

box enclosing the following instruction:

“Questions __ and __ ask about the preceding

passage as a whole.” For online testing, similar

instructions will appear above the individual

questions.

Note the differences in the answer choices.

Many of the questions in the section will involve

more than one aspect of writing. Examine

each answer choice and how it differs from the

others. Be careful not to choose an answer that

corrects one error but causes a different error.

Determine the best answer.

When a question asks you to choose the best

alternative to an underlined or highlighted

portion, consider the following approach:

Decide how the underlined or highlighted

portion might best be phrased in standard

written English or in terms of the particular

question posed.

If the underlined or highlighted portion is

the best answer, select “NO CHANGE.”

If not, check to see whether your phrasing

is one of the other answer choices. If you

do not nd your phrasing, choose the best

of the answers presented.

For questions cued by a number in a box or

a highlighted asterisk in brackets, decide

which choice is most appropriate in terms of

the question posed or the stated rhetorical

situation.

Reread the sentence, using your selected

answer. Once you have selected the answer

you feel is best, reread the corresponding

sentence(s) of the passage, inserting your

selected answer at the appropriate place in

the text to make sure it is the best answer

within the context of the passage.

Mathematics Section

The mathematics section is designed to assess

the mathematical skills students have typically

acquired in courses taken up to the beginning

of grade 12.

Most questions are self-contained. Some

questions may belong to a set of several

questions (e.g., each about the same graph or

chart).

The material covered emphasizes the major

content areas that are prerequisites to

successful performance in entry-level courses

in college mathematics. Knowledge of basic

formulas and computational skills are assumed

as background for the problems, but recall of

complex formulas and extensive computation

are not required.

Note: You may use a permitted calculator

on the mathematics section. See www.act.

org/calculator-policy.html for details about

prohibited models and features.

Nine scores are reported for the mathematics

section: a score for the section overall and eight

reporting category scores based on specic

mathematical knowledge and skills. The

approximate percentage of the section devoted

to each reporting category is:

Preparing for Higher Math (57–60%)

This category covers the more recent

mathematics that students are learning,

starting when they began using algebra

as a general way of expressing and solving

equations. This category is divided into ve

subcategories:

Number and Quantity (7–10%): Demonstrate

knowledge of real and complex number

systems. Reason with numerical quantities

in many forms, including expressions with

integer and rational exponents and vectors

and matrices.

Algebra (12–15%): Solve, graph, and model

multiple types of expressions. Interpret and

use many different kinds of equations, such

as linear, polynomial, radical, and exponential

relationships. Find solutions to systems of

equations, even when represented by a

simple matrix equation, and apply results to

real-world contexts.

Functions (12–15%): Demonstrate

knowledge of functions: denition, notation,

representation, and application. Use

functions including linear, radical, piecewise,

polynomial, exponential, and logarithmic.

Manipulate and translate functions, as well

as interpret and use important features of

graphs.

Geometry (12–15%): Apply your knowledge

of shapes and solids, using concepts such

as congruence and similarity relationships

or surface area and volume measurements.

Apply your understanding to composite

objects and solve for missing values in

triangles, circles, and other gures. Use

trigonometric ratios and equations of conic

sections.

Statistics & Probability (8–12%): Describe

center and spread of distributions. Apply and

analyze data collection methods. Understand

and model relationships in bivariate data.

Calculate probabilities by recognizing the

related sample spaces.

Integrating Essential Skills (40–43%)

This category focuses on measuring how

well you can synthesize and apply your

understandings and skills to solve more

complex problems. The questions ask you to

address concepts such as:

rates and percentages

proportional relationships

area, surface area, and volume

average and median

expressing numbers in different ways

You will solve non-routine problems that involve

combining skills in chains of steps, applying

skills in varied contexts, understanding

connections, and demonstrating uency.

Modeling

This category represents all questions that

involve producing, interpreting, understanding,

evaluating, and improving models. Each

question is also counted in other appropriate

reporting mathematics categories. This

category is an overall measure of how well you

use modeling skills across mathematical topics.

Tips for Taking the Mathematics Section

If you use a calculator, use it wisely.

All of the mathematics problems can be solved

without a calculator. Many of the problems

are best done without a calculator. Use good

judgment in deciding when, and when not,

to use a calculator. For example, for some

problems you may wish to do scratch work

to clarify your thoughts on the question

before you begin using a calculator to do

computations.

Solve the problem.

To work out solutions to the problems, you

will usually do scratch work. You may wish to

glance over the answer choices after reading

the questions. However, working backwards

from all ve answer choices can take a lot of

time and may not be effective.

Find your solution among the answer

choices.

Once you have solved the problem, look for

your answer among the choices. If your answer

is not included among the choices, carefully

reread the problem to see whether you missed

important information. Pay careful attention to

the question being asked. If an equation is to

be selected, check to see whether the equation

you think is best can be transformed into one of

the answer choices provided.

Make sure you answer the question.

The solutions to many questions will involve

several steps. Make sure your answer accounts

for all the necessary steps. Frequently, an

answer choice is an intermediate result, not the

nal answer.

Make sure your answer is reasonable.

Sometimes an error in computation will result

in an answer that is not practically possible

for the situation described. Always think

about your answer to determine whether it is

reasonable.

Check your answer.

You may arrive at an incorrect solution by

making common errors in the problem-solving

process. If there is time remaining before the

end of the mathematics section, it is important

that you reread the questions and check your

answers to make sure they are correct.

Reading Section

The reading section measures your ability to

read closely, reason logically about texts using

evidence, and integrate information from

multiple sources.

The questions focus on the mutually supportive

skills that readers must bring to bear in

studying written materials across a range of

subject areas. Specically, questions will ask

you to:

determine main ideas

locate and interpret signicant details

understand sequences of events

make comparisons

comprehend cause-effect relationships

determine the meaning of context-

dependent words, phrases, and statements

draw generalizations

analyze the author’s or narrator’s voice and

method

analyze claims and evidence in arguments

integrate information from multiple texts

The reading section is composed of multiple

parts. Some parts consist of one long prose

passage and others consist of shorter prose

passages. The passages represent the levels

and kinds of text commonly encountered in

rst-year college curricula.

Each passage is preceded by a heading that

identies the author and source, and may

include important background information to

help you understand the passage. Each portion

contains a set of multiple-choice questions.

These questions do not test the rote recall

of facts from outside the passage or rules

of formal logic, nor do they contain isolated

vocabulary questions. In sections that contain

two shorter passages, some of the questions

involve both of those passages.

Four scores are reported for the reading

section: a score for the section overall and three

reporting category scores based on specic

knowledge and skills. Score reports also include

an Understanding Complex Texts indicator. The

approximate percentage of the section devoted

to each reporting category is:

Key Ideas & Details (52–60%)

This category requires you to read texts closely

to determine central ideas and themes;

summarize information and ideas accurately;

and show an understanding of relationships

and draw logical inferences and conclusions,

including understanding sequential,

comparative, and cause-effect relationships.

Craft & Structure (25–30%)

These questions ask you to:

determine word and phrase meanings

analyze an author’s word choice rhetorically

analyze text structure

understand the author’s purpose and

perspective

analyze characters’ points of view

interpret authorial decisions rhetorically

differentiate between various perspectives

and sources of information

Integration of Knowledge & Ideas

(13–23%)

This category requires you to understand

authors’ claims, differentiate between facts

and opinions, and use evidence to make

connections between different texts that

are related by topic. Some questions will

require you to analyze how authors construct

arguments and to evaluate reasoning and

evidence from various sources.

Visual and Quantitative Information in

the Reading Section

One passage may be accompanied by an

element like a graph, gure, or table that

contains information relevant to the reading

task. In the passage containing these visual and

quantitative elements, some of the questions

will ask you to identify or interpret information

from the graphic or integrate the information

from the passage and graphic to determine the

best answer.

Tips for Taking the Reading Section

Read each passage carefully.

Before you begin answering a question, read

all of the content carefully. Be conscious of

relationships between or among ideas. Take

note about important ideas in the passages.

Refer to the passages when answering the

questions.

Answers to some of the questions will be

found by referring to what is explicitly stated in

the text of the passages. Other questions will

require you to determine implicit meanings

and to draw conclusions, comparisons, and

generalizations. Consider the text before you

answer any question.

Science Section

The science section measures the

interpretation, analysis, evaluation, reasoning,

and problem-solving skills required in the

natural sciences. The section presents several

authentic scientic scenarios, each followed by

a number of multiple-choice questions.

The content includes biology, chemistry, Earth/

space sciences (e.g., geology, astronomy,

and meteorology), and physics. Advanced

knowledge in these areas is not required, but

background knowledge acquired in general,

introductory science courses may be needed to

correctly answer some of the questions.

The science section focuses on

multidimensional assessment, with questions

that assess science content in concert with

science skills and practices.

The questions require you to:

recognize and understand the basic features

of, and concepts related to, the provided

information

examine critically the relationship

between the information provided and the

conclusions drawn or hypotheses developed

generalize from given information to gain

new information, draw conclusions, or make

predictions.

Note: You are not permitted to use a calculator

in the science section.

Four scores are reported for the science

section: a score for the section overall and

three reporting category scores based on

scientic knowledge, skills, and practices. The

approximate percentage of the section devoted

to each reporting category is:

Interpretation of Data (40–50%)

This category asks you to manipulate and

analyze scientic data presented in scientic

tables, graphs, and diagrams (e.g., recognize

trends in data, translate tabular data into

graphs, interpolate and extrapolate, and reason

mathematically).

Scientic Investigation (20–30%)

This category requires you to understand

experimental tools, procedures, and design

(e.g., identify controls and variables) and

compare, extend, and modify experiments (e.g.,

predict the results of additional trials).

Evaluation of Models, Inferences, &

Experimental Results (25–35%)

These questions ask you to judge the validity

of scientic information and formulate

conclusions and predictions based on that

information (e.g., determine which explanation

for a scientic phenomenon is supported by

new ndings).

The science section presents information in

three formats:

Data Representation (25–35%): This format

presents graphic and tabular material

similar to that found in science journals and

texts. The questions associated with this

format measure skills such as recognizing

relationships among data in tables and

graphs; interpolation and extrapolation; and

translating tabular data into graphs.

Research Summaries (45–60%): This format

provides descriptions and results of one or

more related experiments. The questions focus

on the design of the experiments and the

interpretation of experimental results.

Conicting Viewpoints (15–20%): This format

presents two or more explanations for the

same scientic phenomena that, because they

are based on differing premises or incomplete

data, are inconsistent with one another. The

questions focus on the understanding, analysis,

and comparison of alternative viewpoints or

hypotheses.

Tips for Taking the Science Section

Read the passage carefully.

Before you begin answering a question, read

the scientic material provided. It is important

that you read the entire text and examine any

tables, graphs, or gures. You may take notes

about important ideas. Some of the information

sets will describe experiments. You should

consider the experimental design, including the

controls and variables, because questions are

likely to address this component of scientic

research.

Note the different viewpoints in passages.

Some material will present conicting

viewpoints, and the questions will ask you to

distinguish among them. It may be helpful for

you to take notes summarizing each viewpoint

about specic portions of the section.

Writing Section (Optional)

If you register for the A C T with writing, you

will take the writing section after the four

multiple-choice sections. Your score in the

writing section will not affect your scores on the

multiple-choice or your Composite score.

The writing section is a 40-minute essay test

that measures your writing skills—specically,

writing skills taught in high school English

classes and in entry-level college composition

courses.

The section consists of one writing prompt that

describes a complex issue and provides three

different perspectives on the issue. You are

asked to read the prompt and write an essay

in which you develop your own perspective

on the issue. Your essay must analyze the

relationship between your own perspective and

one or more other perspectives. You may adopt

one of the perspectives given in the prompt

as your own, or you may introduce one that is

completely different from those given. Your

score will not be affected by the perspective

you take on the issue.

Five scores are reported for the writing section:

a single subject-level writing score reported

on a scale of 2–12 and four domain scores that

are based on an analytic scoring rubric. The

subject score is the rounded average of the four

domain scores. The four writing domains are:

Ideas and Analysis

Scores in this domain reect the ability to

generate productive ideas and engage critically

with multiple perspectives on the given issue.

Competent writers understand the issue they

are invited to address, the purpose for writing,

and the audience. They generate ideas that are

relevant to the situation.

Development and Support

Scores in this domain reect the ability to

discuss ideas, offer rationale, and bolster an

argument. Competent writers explain and

explore their ideas, discuss implications, and

illustrate through examples. They help the

reader understand their thinking about the

issue.

Organization

Scores in this domain reect the ability to

organize ideas with clarity and purpose.

Organizational choices are integral to effective

writing. Competent writers arrange their essay

in a way that clearly shows the relationship

between ideas, and they guide the reader

through their discussion.

Language Use and Conventions

Scores in this domain reect the ability to use

written language to convey arguments with

clarity. Competent writers make use of the

conventions of grammar, syntax, word usage,

and mechanics. They are also aware of their

audience and adjust the style and tone of their

writing to communicate effectively.

Tips for Taking the Writing Section

Pace yourself.

Budget your time based on your experience in

taking essay tests in school or when you have

done writing within a time limit. It is unlikely

that you will have time to draft, revise, and

recopy your essay.

Plan.

Before writing, carefully read and consider all

prompt material. Be sure you understand the

issue, the different perspectives on the issue,

and your essay task.

Planning questions are included with the

prompt that will help you analyze the different

perspectives and develop your own. Use these

questions to think critically about the prompt

and generate an effective response. How would

you best organize and support your ideas in a

written argument. Spend time structuring or

outlining your response.

Note: The planning questions are optional and

are not scored.

Write.

Establish the focus of your essay by making

clear your argument and its main ideas.

Explain and illustrate your ideas with sound

reasoning and meaningful examples.

Discuss the signicance of your ideas: what

are the implications of what you have to

say, and why is your argument important to

consider?

As you write, ask yourself if your logic is clear, if

you have supported your claims, and if you have

chosen precise words to communicate your

ideas.

Review your essay.

Try to make your essay as polished as you can.

Take a few minutes before time is called to read

over your essay and correct any mistakes.

If you take the A C T on paper, be sure to write

your essay legibly. If you nd words that are

hard to read, recopy them. Make corrections

and revisions neatly, between the lines. Do not

write in the margins, if applicable.

Practice.

There are many ways to prepare for the writing

section. Read newspapers and magazines,

watch/listen to news analyses online, on

TV, or on radio, or participate in discussions

and debates, thinking carefully about other

perspectives in relation to your own.

One good way to prepare for the writing section

is to practice writing with different purposes for

different audiences. The writing you do in your

classes will help you, as will writing a personal

journal, stories, essays, editorials, or other

writing you do on your own.

It is also a good idea to practice writing within

a time limit. Taking the practice writing test

will give you a sense of how much additional

practice you may need. You might want to take

the practice writing section even if you do not

plan to take the A C T with writing. It will help

you build skills that are important in college-

level learning and the world of work.

Taking the Practice Tests

It is a good idea to take the practice tests under

conditions as similar as possible to those you

will experience on test day. The following tips

will help you:

If taking the A C T (no writing), the four

multiple-choice tests require 2 hours and 55

minutes to complete. Take them in order,

in one sitting, with a 10- to 15-minute break

between Tests 2 and 3.

You will need only sharpened, soft lead No. 2

pencils and good erasers. Remove all other

items from your desk. You will not be allowed

to use unapproved scratch paper, but you

can use the test booklet to make notes.

If you plan to use a permitted calculator on

the mathematics test, use the same one you

will use on test day.

Use a digital timer or clock to time yourself

on each practice test. Set your timer for

ve minutes less than the time allowed for

each test so you can get used to the verbal

announcement of ve minutes remaining.

Give yourself only the time allowed for each

test.

Detach and use the sample answer

document on pages 57–58.

Read the test directions on the rst page

of each multiple-choice test. These are the

same directions that will appear in your test

booklet on test day.

Start your timer and begin with Test 1.

Continue through Test 4, taking a 10- to

15-minute break between Tests 2 and 3. Use

the timing table on page2 to time each

section of the test.

Score your multiple-choice tests using the

information beginning on page65.

If you plan to take the A C T with writing, read

the directions on the rst page of the practice

A C T writing test (page54). These are the

same directions that will appear in your test

booklet on test day. Start your timer (set

for 40 minutes), then read the prompt on

page55. After you understand what the

prompt is asking you to do, plan your essay

and then write or print it on lined paper. On

test day, if you test on paper, your answer

document will have lined pages on which you

will write your essay. Score your essay using

the information on pages 71–73.

A screen reader accessible practice test is

available at

https://practice.actdigitalservices.

org/

This booklet contains tests in English, mathematics,

reading, and science. These tests measure skills and

abilities highly related to high school course work and

success in college. Calculators may be used on the

mathematics test only.

The questions in Tests 1–4 are numbered, and the

suggested answers for each question are lettered. On

the answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered

to match the questions, and the ovals in each row are

lettered to correspond to the suggested answers.

For each question, rst decide which answer is best.

Next, locate on the answer document the row of ovals

numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the

oval in that row lettered the same as your answer.

Finally, ll in the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil

and make your marks heavy and black. Do not use ink

or a mechanical pencil.

Mark only one answer to each question. If you change

your mind about an answer, erase your rst mark

thoroughly before marking your new answer. For each

question, make certain that you mark in the row of ovals

with the same number as the question.

Only responses marked on your answer document

will be scored. Your score on each test will be based only

on the number of questions you answer correctly during

the time allowed for that test. You will not be penalized

for guessing. It is to your advantage to answer every

question even if you must guess.

You may work on each test only when the testing

staff tells you to do so. If you nish a test before time is

called for that test, you should use the time remaining

to reconsider questions you are uncertain about in that

test. You may not look back to a test on which time

has already been called, and you may not go ahead

to another test. To do so will disqualify you from the

examination.

Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called

at the end of each test. You may not for any reason ll

in or alter ovals for a test after time is called for that test.

To do so will disqualify you from the examination.

For Test 5, follow the directions on the rst page of

that test.

Do not fold or tear the pages of your test booklet.

Directions

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

Form 2176CPRE

NOTE: This test material is the condential copyrighted property of ACT, Inc., and may not be copied,

reproduced, sold, scanned, emailed, or otherwise transferred without the prior express written permission

of ACT, Inc. Violators of ACT’s copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.

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Practice Multiple-Choice Sections

PASSAGE I

Bar Codes: A Linear History

[1]

In 1948, graduate students, Norman Woodland

and Bernard Silver, took on a problem that had troubled

retailers for years: how to keep track of store inventories.

Inspired by the dots and dashes of Morse code, however,

Woodland and Silver created a system of lines that could

encode data. Called a symbology, the pattern created by

the spacing and widths of the lines encodes information

by representing different characters.

1. A. NO CHANGE

B. students, Norman Woodland and Bernard Silver

C. students Norman Woodland and Bernard Silver

D. students Norman Woodland and Bernard Silver,

2. F. NO CHANGE

G. in other words,

H. consequently,

J. DELETE the underlined portion.

ENGLISH TEST

45 Minutes—75 Questions

DIRECTIONS: In the ﬁve passages that follow, certain

words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In

the right-hand column, you will ﬁnd alternatives for the

underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the

one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement

appropriate for standard written English, or is worded

most consistently with the style and tone of the passage

as a whole. If you think the original version is best,

choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will ﬁnd in

the right-hand column a question about the underlined

part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.

You will also ﬁnd questions about a section of the pas-

sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions

do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but

rather are identiﬁed by a number or numbers in a box.

For each question, choose the alternative you consider

best and ﬁll in the corresponding oval on your answer

document. Read each passage through once before you

begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For

many of the questions, you must read several sentences

beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure

that you have read far enough ahead each time you

choose an alternative.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

The following paragraphs may or may not be

in the most logical order. Each paragraph is num -

bered in brackets, and question 14 will ask you to

choose where Paragraph 3 should most logically

be placed.

[2]

The first bar code was composed of four white

lines set at specific distances from each other on a black

background. The first line was always present. $

Depending on the presence or absence of the remaining

three lines, up to seven different arrangements were

susceptible and, therefore, seven different encodings.

Today, twenty-nine white lines making more than half

a billion encodings possible.

[3]

To create a bar code scanner, Woodland and

Silver adapted technology from an optical movie sound

system. Their prototype scanner used a 500-watt bulb, a

photomultiplier tube (a device that detects light), and an

oscilloscope (a device that translates electronic signals into

readable information). Although successful, the concoction

was both large and costly. For example, progress stalled

until the 1970s, when laser technology (both more compact

and less expensive) became available.

[4]

In today’s scanners, a laser sends light back and forth

across a bar code. While the black lines absorb the light,

the white lines reflect it back at a fixed mirror inside the

scanner. In this way, the scanner reads the symbology and

decodes the information.

3. A. NO CHANGE

B. distances so that each was separated, one from the

C. locations, each one set apart from the

D. lengths of distance from each

4. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sen-

tence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?

F. Kept, because it begins the description that is

com-

pleted in the sentence that follows.

G . Kept, because it gives a clear image of what the

first bar code looked like.

H . Deleted, because it provides an extra detail that is

not relevant to the subject of the paragraph.

J. Deleted, because it contradicts a point made later

in the paragraph.

5. A. NO CHANGE

B. responsible

C. possible

D. capable

6. F. NO CHANGE

G . which make

H . to make

J. make

7. A. NO CHANGE

B. contraption

C. substance

D. stuff

8. F. NO CHANGE

G. As a result,

H. However,

J. Even so,

9. A. NO CHANGE

B . them

C . ones

D. one

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

[5]

* Today,

being that there are one- and

two-dimensional bar codes using numeric

and alphanumeric symbologies. Bar codes

are used not only for a pack of gum or an airline

ticket, but also for research. In one study, for

instance, tiny bar codes were placed on bees tracking

their activities. Shaping the way we gather, track, and

share information, we have almost certainly exceeded

even Woodland and Silver’s expectations.

1 4. For the sake of the logic and coherence of the essay,

Paragraph 3 should be placed:

F. where it is now.

G. before Paragraph 1.

H. after Paragraph 1.

J. after Paragraph 5.

10. Which of the following true statements, if added here,

would most effectively lead into the new subject of the

paragraph?

F. In the 1940s, Woodland and Silver were graduate

students at the Drexel Institute of Technology in

Philadelphia.

G . W

oodland and Silver were granted a patent for

their bar code on October 7, 1952.

H. Bar code equipment has been available for retail

use since 1970.

J. Bar codes themselves have advanced as well.

11. A . NO CHANGE

B . there are

C . where

D. DELETE the underlined portion.

12. F. NO CHANGE

G. had been placed on bees trying to track

H. placed on bees, which would track

J. were placed on bees to track

13. A . NO CHANGE

B . exceeding Woodland and Silver’s expectations

about bar codes has almost certainly been done.

C . bar codes have almost certainly exceeded even

Woodland and Silver’s expectations.

D. it is almost certain that we have exceeded even

Woodland and Silver’s expectations.

1 5. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to

describe how a specific technological advancement

changed business practices. Would this essay accom-

plish that purpose?

A . Yes, because it offers an overview of current bar

code technology and indicates the variety of ways

in which bar codes are used by specific businesses.

B . Yes, because it explains how bar codes and scan-

ners made it easier for stores to keep track of their

inventories.

C . No, because it focuses primarily on the develop-

ment of bar codes and only briefly mentions how

businesses have implemented the use of bar codes.

D. No, because it focuses on why businesses needed

new technology but does not explain how bar

codes were able to serve that need.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

Questions 14 and 15 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.

16. F. NO CHANGE

G. me, and then pointing

H. me and she pointed

J. me, she pointed

17. A. NO CHANGE

B. glowing,” she said as she pointed up to the ceiling.

C. glowing,” she said in a hushed, whispering voice.

D. glowing.”

18. F. NO CHANGE

G. Although

H. Since

J. DELETE the underlined portion.

19. A. NO CHANGE

B. with

C. by

D. in

20. F. NO CHANGE

G. end up pretty hard to see.

H. have not a lot of light.

J. be utterly dark.

21. At this point, the writer wants to emphasize the idea

that the narrator found the woman’s comment peculiar.

Which of the following best accomplishes that goal?

A. I figured she had been to the caves before.

B. Surprised, I hesitantly turned toward her.

C. She had a notepad in her hand.

D. I happened to agree.

22. F. NO CHANGE

G. had been

H. it was

J. DELETE the underlined portion.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

PASSAGE II

Glowing on an Adventure

As I pulled my camera out of my backpack, I felt a

tap on my arm.

“No photographs,” whispered the woman next to

me, pointing up to the cave ceiling. “The flash will

make them stop glowing,” she said, whispering.

She was referring to the thousands of glowworms

that clung to the limestone ceiling and, with their radiant

bodies, flooded the cave in aquamarine light. While

I was traveling on canoe on a group tour through

the renowned Glowworm Grotto of New Zealand’s

Waitomo Caves. Were it not for the twinkling

light of these Arachnocampa luminosa, a species

unique to New Zealand and abundant in these caves,

this meandering subterranean passageway would

feel as though it were downright ensconced in shadows.

I sheepishly tucked the camera away and focused

again on the glowworms. Collectively, they resembled the

cosmos, a sea of stars in a clear night sky. Beautiful—yet

what made them glow?

“Bioluminescence,” the woman said,

peculiarly sensing my curiosity. 5 A badge

was pinned to her shirt indicated she was a

biochemist, here, I guessed, to research the organism.

She explained that to attract prey, glowworms (not

really worms at all, but the larval stage of a fungus

gnat) emit light through their translucent skin; via a

cellular chemical reaction. The cells produce luciferin,

a chemical pigment that reacts with oxygen to produce

light that shines through the organism’s tail-end intestine.

From its mouth, she showed me,

all glowworms dangle shimmering silken

threads glossed in beads of mucus. Cave-dwelling

insects are trapped in these threads, then reeled in

like fish on a line, and finally lured by the light.

The light responds to environmental factors. The

sound of splashing water, however, might signal

that prey is nearby, causing them to

brighten. <

2 3. A . NO CHANGE

B . skin, and via

C . skin. Via

D. skin via

2 4. F. NO CHANGE

G . all of the glowworms are dangling

H . each of the glowworms dangle

J. each glowworm dangles

2 5. A . NO CHANGE

B . lured by the light, then trapped in these threads,

and finally reeled in like fish on a line.

C . reeled in like fish on a line, then trapped in these

threads, and finally lured by the light.

D. trapped in these threads, then

lured by the light,

and finally reeled in like fish on a line.

26. F. NO CHANGE

G . on the other hand,

H . for example,

J. above all,

27. A . NO CHANGE

B . the light

C . these

D. DELETE the underlined portion.

28. Which of the following choices, if added here, would

best conclude the paragraph and refer back to the con-

versation at the beginning of the essay?

F. Insects are likely attracted to the light because the

sky-like appearance of the glowworms fools the

insects into believing they are outdoors.

G. She told me that the cave is usually quiet, with

only occasional noises, such as tour boats passing

through the water.

H. A camera flash, she reminded me, may also spell

danger, and the glowworms’ light is doused.

J. The light is also brighter in a hungry larva than in

those that have just eaten.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

Our trip neared its end. I spotted

a dragonfly in the cave. I knew its

fate, it would be ensnared, just as I had

been by the brilliance of these luminescent

glowworms.

PASSAGE III

A Rose by the Name Antique

With shears in hand, I clip a thin branch

from the rosebush in my backyard garden. I place this

clipping into the basket next to me and crouch under

this again. I snip a few more branches and then rise

to head to the greenhouse. There, I will deposit these

clippings in rich soil; roots will take hold, buds will sprout,

and a new plant will find a home in my garden.

My roses are not your average hybrid-tea roses (those

long-stemmed, special occasion roses with well-formed

buds). Mine are antique roses, old, or heirloom varieties,

that have existed in gardens worldwide for centuries.

29. The writer is considering revising the underlined por-

tion to the following:

soaring toward the light.

Should the writer make this revision?

A. Yes, because the revised phrase more specifically

describes the dragonfly’s actions to help support

the narrator’s claim that she knew what its fate

would be.

B. Yes, because the revised phrase adds informati

that explains why the light of the glowworms was

suddenly dim.

C. No, because the original phrase more clearly

establishes that the trip is ending and that the nar-

rator sees the dragonfly as they exit the cave.

D. No, because the original phrase builds on the sus-

pense established in the narrative regarding the

fate of the dragonfly.

30. F. NO CHANGE

G. fate; and

H. fate:

J. fate

31. A. NO CHANGE

B. basket next, to me

C. basket, next to me

D. basket next to me,

32. F. NO CHANGE

G. the rosebush

H. one

J. it

33. Which choice most closely maintains the sentence pat-

tern the writer establishes after the semicolon?

A. NO CHANGE

B. I will see new buds that have been sprouting,

C. followed by the buds, which have sprouted,

D. then come the sprouting buds after that,

34. F. NO CHANGE

G. roses, old or heirloom, varieties,

H. roses old, or heirloom varieties

J. roses, old or heirloom varieties

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

Compared to vibrant hybrid-tea colors, antique rose colors

tend to be silenced. Their stems are also shorter, and their

buds are a bit droopier. Their fragrance, however, is

unmatched. And unlike the hybrid-tea whose long stems

make into a rosebush that is rather scraggly looking,

antique rosebushes can be grown in a variety of colors,

handsomely landscaping gardens.

The plant thrives best when it is exposed to six hours

of direct sunlight daily. The plant can withstand extreme

temperatures and survive nearly anywhere. It’s also easier

to grow antiques. Cultivating hybrid-teas having involved

a process of grafting two species of rose together, but the

grafted area remains weak and susceptible to viruses.

Antiques, on the other hand, are less prone to disease

because they are grown simply by placing cuttings from

a parent plant into nutrient-rich soil. They require far less

pruning, fertilizing, and nurturing than their hybrid-tea

3 5. A . NO CHANGE

B . vibrant hybrid-tea, colors,

C . vibrant, hybrid-tea colors

D. vibrant hybrid-tea colors

3 6. F. NO CHANGE

G . reduced.

H . muted.

J. lower.

3 7. A . NO CHANGE

B . about

C . like

D. for

3 8. The writer wants to add a detail here that best com-

pletes the contrast to hybrid-tea roses in the first part

of the sentence. Which choice best accomplishes that

goal?

F. NO CHANGE

G . are lush and shapely,

H . can grow quite large,

J. tend to be less thorny,

39. Which choice best introduces the main focus of the

paragraph?

A . NO CHANGE

B . The varieties of antique roses are numerous, the

most popular of which are the silken peach

Mutabilis and the crimson Louis Phillippe.

C . Aside from the rose’s beauty, what gardeners like

me most appreciate is that antiques are incredibly

durable and low maintenance.

D. While I am fond of bush varieties, I am also drawn

to climbing varieties that can be placed against

walls, fences, or trellises.

4 0. F. NO CHANGE

G. They’re

H. Their

J. Its

4 1. A. NO CHANGE

B . which involves

C. involves

D. involving

4 2. F. NO CHANGE

G. Antiques, requiring

H. Antiques require

J. Requiring

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

43. The writer wants to add a detail here that emphasizes

the antique rose’s ability to survive without human

care. Which choice best accomplishes that goal?

A. NO CHANGE

B. blooming year after year even at abandoned sites.

C. making them more popular among gardeners.

D. often blooming between midspring and fall.

44. Which sequence of sentences makes this paragraph

most logical?

F. NO CHANGE

G. 2, 1, 3

H. 3, 1, 2

J. 1,

3, 2

45. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to

describe the process of planting a particular flower.

Would this essay accomplish that purpose?

A. Yes, because the essay discusses the steps involved

in growing and maintaining antique rosebushes.

B. Yes, because the writer explains the specific condi-

tions needed to plant antique roses and how long it

takes for new buds to sprout.

C. No, because the essay is more focused on compar-

ing the qualities and cultivation of antique and

hybrid-tea roses.

D. No, because while the writer mentions growing

antique roses in his garden, the essay is more

focused on the history of antiques in gardens

worldwide.

46. F. NO CHANGE

G. this work of art reached

H. the object stood

J. DELETE the underlined portion.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

Question 45 asks about the preceding passage

as a whole.

counterparts, antiques can reportedly survive without any

care from human hands, a fact that surprises many.

[1] I dig small holes in a pot of soil, place each

clipping a half inch deep, and pack down the soil around

them. [2] Back in my greenhouse, I strip the clippings

of all leaves and branches. [3] Then I wait: the roots will

take hold and, eventually, buds will sprout. L

PASSAGE IV

Jeremy Frey, Weaving Heritage Into Modern Art

[1]

The winning piece was a basket, it was eighteen

inches tall with a curved, vaselike silhouette. [A] It

was made of ash wood finely woven into bold stripes of

black and white that ran from its crown to its base. [B]

4 7. A . NO CHANGE

B . Market the largest Indian art festival—in the

nation—

C. Market, the largest Indian art festival, in the nation

D. Market, the largest Indian art festival in the nation

4 8. F. NO CHANGE

G. looked on as the

H. as his

J. his

4 9. A . NO CHANGE

B . but, unlike most, contemporary basketmakers

C. but unlike, most contemporary basketmakers,

D. but, unlike most contemporary basketmakers

5 0. F. NO CHANGE

G. Going on to

create

H. Frey creates

J. Creating

5 1. If the writer were to delete the underlined portion, the

essay would primarily lose:

A. an indication that Frey honors Passamaquoddy cul-

tural heritage by creating baskets that look nearly

identical to traditional pieces.

B . a mention of a physical characteristic of the earli-

est baskets used by Passamaquoddy fishermen.

C . a detail that connects Frey’s basketry work to

long-standing Passamaquoddy traditions.

D. a point revealing that Frey’s baskets are used by

Passamaquoddy fishermen today.

5 2. Which choice provides the clearest and most specific

information about which parts of Frey’s baskets are

being referred to in the sentence and about Frey’s

manner of weaving those parts?

F. NO CHANGE

G. a remarkable level of detail on certain sections, the

H. intricately woven interiors and bottoms,

J. characteristic interiors and bottoms,

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

In the ninety-year history of the Santa Fe Indian

Market—the largest Indian art festival in the nation—the

2011 event marked the first time a basket won best of

show. The creator of the piece, thirty-three-year-old

Passamaquoddy Indian Jeremy Frey from Princeton,

Maine, the basket sold at auction for $16,000.

[2]

[C] Frey describes his baskets as

“cutting-edge traditional.” [D] He primarily

weaves a classic material, wood from the brown

ash tree, but, unlike most contemporary basketmakers,

he harvests, cuts, pounds, dries, and dyes the wood

himself. Then creating highly elaborate versions

of the sturdy utility baskets that have been used

by generations of Passamaquoddy fishermen from

Maine. He honors tradition, but he highlights

artistic design. For example, his baskets feature

complex weaving on areas that are often hidden

and therefore typically not embellished. Many

traditional baskets have basic, woven lids.

Frey’s porcupine quill lids are often decorated

with art inlaid on birch bark; as far as lids go,

I wouldn’t say that’s basic. And while braids of

grass are customarily woven into ash baskets

to make them better, Frey incorporates braided

cedar bark to create striking new textures.

[3]

Now that he’s a nationally recognized artist of who

has rejuvenated the art of basketry, Frey feels his role

is to inspire. He’s on the board of the Maine Indian

Basketmakers Alliance, a group that works to help

preserve it by reaching out to young members of Native

communities in the state. His other goal is to continue to

stand out. The woven grass bracelets he saw on a recent

trip to Hawaii have influenced how he shapes the bases

of some of his newer baskets, as he finds yet another way

to make traditional Passamaquoddy weaving something

spectacularly his own.

53. Which placement of the underlined portion makes

clear that the art that decorates the lid, not the lid

itself, is made of porcupine quill?

A. Where it is now

B. After the wor

d are

C . After the word o ften

D. After the word with

5 4. F. NO CHANGE

G . bark, which is not exactly formulating a lid

through a conventional ideology.

H. bark; this is just part of his really artistic way.

J. bark.

5 5. A . NO CHANGE

B . has been

C . is seen

D. is

5 6. Which choice provides the clearest and most specific

reason that grass is woven into ash baskets?

F. NO CHANGE

G. for the sake of the objects,

H. for a useful purpose,

J. to strengthen them,

57. A . NO CHANGE

B . being whom

C . whom

D. who

58. F. NO CHANGE

G . this art

H . that

J. DELETE the underlined portion.

59. A . NO CHANGE

B . distinguish himself from other weavers so as a

weaver he is set apart from them.

C . remain to be someone who gets noticed.

D. keep on being fully distinct.

60. The writer is considering adding the following sen-

tence to the essay:

The black stripes were woven flat, sharply set-

ting off the white stripes, which were woven

to form raised columns of perfectly even

points that seemed to cascade down the piece.

If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most

logically be placed at:

F. Point A in Paragraph 1.

G . Point B in Paragraph 1.

H . Point C in Paragraph 2.

J. Point D in Paragraph 2.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

Question 60 asks about the preceding passage

as a whole.

PASSAGE V

The Flow of Time

Nine hundred years ago, Emperor Zhezong of China,

ordered the design and construction of a clock

built to keep time more accurately than other clocks.

This would be no simple timepiece and because

Chinese dynasties continued to astrology, they relied

on complicated clocks that not only kept time but also

helped track stars, planets, the sun, and the moon. An

eminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song lead

Zhezong’s ambitious project.

Using his expertise in calendrical science,

Su Song created a spectacular timepiece housed within

an ornate forty-foot-tall tower. At the tower’s top sat an

armillary sphere, or a nest of metal rings representing

celestial reference points such as the horizon and

the sun’s path—that rotated in sync with the

earth, enabling precise astronomical observations.

Inside the tower, a sphere depicting the sky

revolved to display the stars that were overhead.

61. A. NO CHANGE

B. ago, Emperor Zhezong, of China

C. ago, Emperor Zhezong of China

D. ago Emperor Zhezong of China,

62. F. NO CHANGE

to keep time more accurately than clocks that had

previously come before it.

H. more accurate at keeping time correctly than any

other clock of the time.

J. more accurate than any other.

63. A. NO CHANGE

B. timepiece. Because

C. timepiece, because

D. timepiece because

64. F. NO CHANGE

G. adhered

H. linked

J. fixed

65. A. NO CHANGE

B. imminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song

lead

C. imminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song

led

D. eminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song

led

66. Given that all the choices are accurate, which one best

indicates that Su Song relied on engineering achieve-

ments from earlier times?

F. NO CHANGE

G. Building on centuries of Chinese clock-making

knowledge,

H. While authoring his treatise on astronomical

clockwork,

J. After first crafting a working small-scale wooden

model,

67. A. NO CHANGE

B. secured between

C. encased around

D. nestled among

68. F. NO CHANGE

G. sphere—

H. sphere:

J. sphere,

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

Besides, below the star sphere, the tower’s open

sides exposed a detailed model of a five-story pagoda.

Automated figurines would appear in the pagoda’s

doorways and ring bells to announce hours, sunsets,

seasons, and other chronological events.

The clock’s inner workings were equally remarkable.

Hidden in the tower, a waterwheel eleven feet in diameter

powered the entire clock. Therefore, water would pour at

a constant rate into one of the wheel’s thirty-six buckets.

When the bucket was full, the water’s weight pulled it

down, rotating the waterwheel. Then a stop mechanism

halted the wheel and positioned the next bucket for filling.

Chinese clockmakers had long used waterwheels, but

Su Song’s stop mechanism, which regulated the inertia

of the waterwheel, represented significant innovation.

Unfortunately, after Su Song’s clock ran

for thirty years, invaders stole it. Later the clock

vanished altogether. It would be a few hundred years

until with the refinement of mechanical clocks in Europe

other clocks approached the complexity of Su Song’s

masterpiece.

6 9. A . NO CHANGE

B . Sooner or later,

C . Lastly,

D. Thus,

7 0. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined

portion would NOT be acceptable?

F. bells, which served to announce

G . bells, they announced

H . bells that announced

J. bells, announcing

7 1. A . NO CHANGE

B . reveals themselves as being

C . was shown to be

D. has proved

7 2. F. NO CHANGE

G . In other words, water

H . For example, water

J. Water

7 3. A . NO

CHANGE

B . nevertheless,

C . regardless,

D. DELETE the underlined portion.

7 4. F. NO CHANGE

G. until—with the refinement of mechanical clocks in

Europe—

H. until with the refinement (of mechanical clocks in

Europe)

J. until, with the refinement, of mechanical clocks in

Europe

7 5. A . NO CHANGE

B . eventually became able to draw anywhere near to

the complexity

C. grew to attain such a high degree as that

D. could even fathom coming within reach

ACT-2176CPRE

END OF TEST 1

STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

1 . The numbers 1 through 15 were each written on

individual pieces of paper, 1 number per piece. Then

the 15 pieces of paper were put in a jar. One piece of

paper will be drawn from the jar at random. What is

the probability of drawing a piece of paper with a

number less than 9 written on it?

C .

2 . Which of the following expressions is equivalent to

− 4x

− 12x

+ 9x

F. 0 0x

G . 0−7x

H . 0−8x

+ 9x

J. −16x

+ 9x

K. −16x

+ 9x

3 . When x = 2, 10+ 3

12÷ (3x)

= 0?

A. 012

B . 016

C. 026

D. 034

E . 104

4 .

⎪

6− 4

⎪

−

⎪

3− 8

⎪

= ?

F. −7

G. −3

H. 3

J. 7

K. 21

___

5 . The expression (4c − 3d)(3c + d) is equivalent to:

A. 12c

− 13cd − 3d

B . 12c

− 13cd + 3d

C . 12c

− 05cd − 3d

D. 12c

− 05cd + 3d

E . 12c

− 03d

6 . Of the 180 students in a college course, of the

students earned an A for the course, of the students

earned a B for the course, and the rest of the

students earned a C for the course. How many of the

students earned a C for the course?

F. 075

G. 090

H. 105

J. 120

K. 135

7. The number of fish, f, in Skipper’s Pond at the

beginning of each year can be modeled by the equation

f (x) = 3(2

), where x represents the number of years

after the beginning of the year 2000. For example,

x = 0 represents the beginning of the year 2000, x = 1

represents the beginning of the year 2001, and so forth.

According to the model, how many fish were in

Skipper’s Pond at the beginning of the year 2006?

A. 000,96

B. 00,192

C. 00,384

D. 01,458

E. 46,656

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

MATHEMATICS TEST

60 Minutes—60 Questions

ACT-2176CPRE

DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct

answer, and then ﬁll in the corresponding oval on your

answer document.

Do not linger over problems that take too much time.

Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in

the time you have left for this test.

You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You

may use your calculator for any problems you choose,

but some of the problems may best be done without

using a calculator.

Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should

be assumed.

1. Illustrative ﬁgures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.

2. Geometric ﬁgures lie in a plane.

3. The word line indicates a straight line.

4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.

8 . Manish drove from Chicago to Baton Rouge. At

8:00 a.m., he was 510 km from Baton Rouge. At

1:00 p.m., he was 105 km from Baton Rouge. Which

of the following values is closest to Manish’s average

speed, in kilometers per hour, from 8:00 a.m. to

1:00p.m.?

F. 058

G. 068

H. 081

J. 094

K. 102

9 . In the figure shown below, E and G lie onAC

___

, D andF

lie on AB

___

, DE

___

and FG

___

are parallel to BC

___

, and the

given lengths are infeet. What is the length ofAC

___

, in

feet?

A . 13

B . 26

C . 29

D. 42

E . 48

1 0. Katerina runs 15 miles in 2 hours. What is the

average number of minutes it takes her to run 1mile?

F. 06

G . 10

H . 12

J. 16

K . 17

1 1. A bag contains 8 red marbles, 9 yellow marbles, and

7 green marbles. How many additional red marbles

must be added to the 24 marbles already in the bag so

that the probability of randomly drawing a red marble

is ?

A . 11

B . 16

C . 20

D. 24

E . 32

1 2. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, the point (2,1) is

the midpoint of CD

___

. Point C has coordinates (6,8).

What are the coordinates of pointD ?

− 2,−

G . (−2, −6)

H .

J. (10, 10)

K . (10, 15)

13. At his job, the first 40hours of each week that Thomas

works is regular time, and any additional time that he

works is overtime. Thomas gets paid $15 per hour

during regular time. During overtime Thomas gets paid

1.5times as much as he gets paid during regular time.

Thomas works 46 hours in 1 week and gets $117 in

deductions taken out of his pay for this week. After the

deductions are taken out, how much of Thomas’s pay

for this week remains?

A. $492

B. $573

C. $609

D. $618

E. $735

14. At Sweet Stuff Fresh Produce the price of a bag of

grapes depends on the total number of bags purchased

at 1 time, as shown in the table below. In 2 trips to

Sweet Stuff this week, Janelle purchased 3 bags of

grapes on Monday and 4 bags of grapes on Wednesday.

How much money would Janelle have saved if she had

instead purchased 7 bags of grapes in 1 trip on

Monday?

F. $0.20

G . $1.00

H . $1.40

J. $2.00

K . $2.50

15. What is 3% of 4.14

A . 001,242

B . 001,380

C . 012,420

D. 013,800

E . 124,200

Number of bags Price per bag

1−3 $3.00

4−6

$2.80

7−9

$2.60

10or more $2.50

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

16. What value of x satisfies the equation

−3(4x − 5)= 2(1− 5x)?

F. −

G. −

H. −1

17. In right triangle nABC shown below, the given lengths

are in millimeters. What is sin,A ?

18.

−

= ?

F. −

G. −

19. Loto begins at his back door and walks 8 yards east,

6 yards north, 12 yards east, and 5 yards north to the

barn door. About how many yards less would he walk

if he could walk directly from the back door to the

barn door?

A. 08

B. 19

C. 23

D. 26

E. 31

_ __

√•

_____

√•

_____

√•

_____

_ __

20. For a given set of data, the standard score, z,

corresponding to the raw score, x, is given by z = ,

where μ is the mean of the set and σ is the standard

deviation. If, for a set of scores, μ=78 and σ=6,

which of the following is the raw score, x,

corresponding to z = 2?

F. 90

G. 84

H. 80

J. 76

K. 66

21. In the figure below, A, B, C, and D lie on the circle

centered atO.

Which of the following does NOT appear in the figure?

A. Acute triangle

B. Equilateral triangle

C. Isosceles triangle

D. Right triangle

E. Scalene triangle

22. What is the slope of a line, in the standard (x,y)

coordinate plane, that is parallel to x + 5y = 9?

F. −5

G. −

K. 9

23. Given y = and x > 1, which of the following is a

possible value of y ?

A. −1.9

B. −0.9

C. 0.0

D. 0.9

E. 1.9

60°

_____

x − 1

x −μ

_____

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

2 4. The set of all positive integers that are divisible by

both 15 and 35 is infinite. What is the least positive

integer in this set?

F. 005

G. 050

H. 105

J. 210

K. 525

2 5. In nABC shown below, the measure of ∠A is58°, and

___

≅ AC

___

. What is the measure of∠C ?

A. 32°

B . 42°

C. 58°

D. 61°

E . 62°

2 6. About 1.48

square kilometers of Earth’s surface

is land; the rest, about 3.63

square kilometers, is

water. If a returning space capsule lands at a random

point on Earth’s surface, which of the following is the

best estimate of the probability that the space capsule

will land in water?

F. 80%

G . 71%

H . 65%

J. 41%

K . 29%

2 7. On the first 7 statistics tests of the semester, Jamal

scored 61, 76, 79, 80, 80, 84, and 91. The mean,

median, and mode of his scores were 79, 80, and 80,

respectively. On the 8th statistics test, Jamal scored 90.

How do the mean, median, and mode of all 8 of his

scores compare to the mean, median, and mode of his

first 7 scores?

Mean Median Mode

A . equal greater greater

B . greater greater greater

C . greater greater equal

D. greater equal greater

E . greater equal equal

58°

2 8. The solid rectangular prism shown below was built by

alternating congruent black cubes and white cubes

such that 2 cubes of the same color have at most

1 edge touching. What is the total number of white

cubes that were used to build the prism?

F. 045

G. 102

H. 105

J. 140

K. 210

2 9. One side of squareABCD has a length of 12 meters. A

certain rectangle whose area is equal to the area of

A BCD has a width of 8 meters. What is the length, in

meters, of the rectangle?

A . 12

B . 16

C . 18

D. 20

E . 24

30. The average of a list of 4 numbers is 92.0. A new list

of 4 numbers has the same first 3 numbers as the

original list, but the fourth number in the original list

is 40, and the fourth number in the new list is 48. What

is the average of this new list of numbers?

F. 81.0

G . 92.0

H . 94.0

J. 94.4

K . 96.6

31. The vector i represents 1 mile per hour east, and the

vector j represents 1 mile per hour north. Maria is

jogging south at 12 miles per hour. One of the

following vectors represents Maria’s velocity, in miles

per hour. Which one?

A. −12i

B. −12j

C. 012i

D. 012j

E. 012i + 12j

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

Many humans carry the geneYq77. The Yqtest determines,

with 100% accuracy, whether a human carries Yq77. If a

Yqtest result is positive, the human carries the Yq77 gene.

If a Yq test result is negative, the human does NOT carry

Yq77. Sam designed a less expensive test for Yq77 called

the Sam77 test. It produces some incorrect results. To

determine the accuracy of the Sam77 test, both tests were

administered to 1,000 volunteers. The results from this

administration are summarized in the table below.

35. It cost $2,500 to administer each Yq test and $50 to

administer each Sam77test. What was the total cost to

administer both tests to all the volunteers?

A . $1,537,500

B . $1,556,750

C . $1,568,250

D. $2,500,000

E . $2,550,000

36. What percent of the volunteers actually carry Yq77?

F. 57.5%

G . 60.0%

H . 60.5%

J. 61.5%

K . 62.5%

3 7. For how many volunteers did the Sam77 test give an

incorrect result?

A. 010

B . 025

C. 035

D. 385

E . 400

3 8. One of the volunteers whose Sam77 test result was

positive will be chosen at random. To the nearest

0.001, what is the probability the chosen volunteer

does NOT possess Yq77?

F. 0.017

G. 0.026

H. 0.035

J. 0.041

K. 0.063

Positive

Yqtest

Negative

Yqtest

Positive Sam77test 590 010

Negative Sam77test 025 375

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

3 2. Four identical glasses are shown below. One glass is

empty, and the other 3 glasses are full, full, and

full of water, respectively. If the water were

redistributed equally among the 4 glasses, what

fractional part of each glass would be filled?

G .

3 3. Aurelio is purchasing carpet tiles to cover an area of

his living room floor that is 8 feet wide by 10 feet

long. Each carpet tile is a square 20

inches wide by

20 inches long. What is the minimum number of carpet

tiles that Aurelio must purchase to cover this area of

his living room floor?

A . 05

B. 11

C . 21

D. 30

E. 84

34. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, a circle with its

center at (8,5) and a radius of 9 coordinate units has

which of the following equations?

F. (x− 8)

+ (y− 5)

= 81

G . (x− 8)

+ (y− 5)

= 09

H . (x+ 8)

+ (y+ 5)

= 81

J. (x+ 8)

+ (y+ 5)

= 09

K . (x+ 5)

+ (y+ 8)

= 81

___

Use the following information to answer

questions 35–38.

3 9. Given matrices X =

−10

and Y =

, which of the

following matrices is XY ?

− 4

B .

− 3

C .

− 2

E .

4 0. Regardless of how the graph is oriented in the standard

(x,y) coordinate plane, NO graph in one of the

following categories has a vertical line of symmetry.

Which one?

F. Line

G. Square

H. Pentagon

J. Parallelogram

K. Scalene triangle

4 1. The equation 24x

+ 2x = 15 has 2 solutions. What is

the greater of the 2 solutions?

A .

B .

C .

E .

4 2. Which of the following expressions is equal to

(sin,60°)(cos,30°)+ (cos,60°)(sin,30°)?

F. cos(60°− 30°)

G . cos(60°+ 30°)

H . sin(60°− 30°)

J. sin(60°+ 30°)

K . sin

4 3. What is the area, in square units, of a circle that has a

circumference 12π units long?

A. 006π

B. 012π

C . 024π

D. 036π

E. 144π

−2

−1

___

60° + 30°

________

4 4. A barrel contains 25 liters of a solvent mixture that is

40% solvent and 60% water. Lee will add pure solvent

to the barrel, without removing any of the mixture

currently in the barrel, so that the new mixture will

contain 50% solvent and 50% water. How many liters

of pure solvent should Lee add to create this new

mixture?

F. 02.5

G. 05

H. 10

J. 12.5

K. 15

4 5. For all x ≠±y, +=?

A .

B .

C .

D. x

+ y

E .

46. Mary, James, and Carlos sold -page advertisements

for the school yearbook. Mary sold twice as many as

Carlos did, and James sold 3 times as many as Mary

did. What fraction of these advertisements did Carlos

sell?

G .

H .

K .

47. In a window display at a flower shop, there are 3 spots

for 1 plant each. To fill these 3 spots, Emily has

6 plants to select from, each of a different type.

Selecting from the 6 plants, Emily can make how many

possible display arrangements with 1 plant in each

spot?

(Note: The positions of the unselected plants do not

matter.)

A . 003

B . 006

C . 015

D. 120

E . 216

x + y

_____

+ y

______

− y

_____

x − y

_____

x + y

_____

x − y

x + y

_____

x − y

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

5 1. Twelve jurors are needed for an upcoming trial. The

diagram below illustrates a part of the process of jury

selection. The 12 jurors will be selected from a jury

pool of about 60 people. The court records show a

trend that only 40% of the people who are summoned

for jury duty actually appear and that of the people

who appear, are excused. If this same trend

continues, how many people should be summoned to

have as close as possible to 60people in the jury pool?

A. 045

B. 090

C. 150

D. 225

E. 800

52. What is the 275th digit after the decimal point in the

repeating decimal 0.6295

_____

F. 0

G . 2

H . 5

J. 6

K . 9

53. Given that f (x) = x

− 4 and g(x) = x + 3, what are all

the values ofx for which f

g(x)

= 0?

A . −5 and −1

B . −3, −2, and 2

C . −1 and 1

D. 01 and 5

E . −

√•

5 and

√•

5 4. Given that p is a positive number, n is a negative

number, and

⎪

, which of the following

expressions has the greatest value?

⎪⎪

G .

⎪⎪

H .

⎪⎪

K .

⎪⎪

Summoned

Did not appea

Appeared

Excused Jury pool

p − n

_____

p − n

_____

p + n

_____

p − n

p + n

_____

p + n

_____

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

The quadratic function f and nMPQ are graphed in the

standard (x,y) coordinate plane below. Points M(2a, 5b),

N(4a, 9b), and P(6a, 5b) are on f. Point Q(4a, 0) is NOT

on f.

4 8. In terms of a and b, what is the area, in square

coordinate units, of nMPQ ?

F. 08ab

G. 10ab

H. 12ab

J. 15ab

K. 20ab

4 9. Point M will remain fixed, and point Q will move to

the right along the x-axis. As Q continues to move to

the right, which of the following statements describes

what will happen to the slope of MQ

____

A . It will decrease and eventually be negative.

B . It will decrease but never be negative.

C . It will stay the same.

D. It will increase but never be positive.

E . It will increase and eventually be positive.

5 0. One of the following values is equal to f (5a). Which

one?

F. 3a

G. 5a

H. 5b

J. 8a

K. 8b

x2a 4a 6a 8a

Use the following information to answer

questions 48–50.

5 5. If i =

√••

−1 , then = ?

A. −3

B . −1

C. 0

D. 01

E. 03

5 6. In one of the following graphs in the standard (x,y)

coordinate plane, the solution set to the system of

inequalities below is shown shaded. Which one?

x + 2y ≤ 6

> 12− 3y

5 7. Let a, b, c, and d be real numbers. Given that ac = 1,

is undefined, and abc = d, which of the following

must be true?

A. a= 0 or c= 0

B . a= 1 and c= 1

C. a=−c

D. b= 0

E . b+ c= 0

i + i

+ i

_________

+ i

b + c

_____

5 8. A cosine function is shown in the standard (x,y)

coordinate plane below.

One of the following equations represents this

function. Which one?

F. y= 2cos

G . y= 2cos(3x)

H . y= 3cos

J. y= 3cos

K . y= 3cos(2x)

59. The figure below shows a flying kite. At a certain

moment, the kite string forms an angle of elevation of

75° from pointA on the ground. At the same moment,

the angle of elevation of the kite at pointB, 240 ft from

A on level ground, is 45°. What is the length, in feet, of

the string?

A . 060

√•

B . 080

√•

C . 144

D. 180

E . 240

60. If a publisher charges $15 for the first copy of a book

that is ordered and $12 for each additional copy, which

of the following expressions represents the cost of

y books?

F. 12y + 03

G . 12y + 15

H . 15y − 03

J. 15y + 03

K . 15y + 12

45°75°

tring

kite

240

ACT-2176CPRE

END OF TEST 2

STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.

Passage I

LITERARY NARRATIVE: Passage A is adapted from the

memoir The Piano Shop on the Left Bank by Thad Carhart

with Classical Music ).

Passage A by Thad Carhart

Even when Luc was busy and could not talk he

always made me welcome and allowed me to wander

around the inner sanctum of the back room on my own.

When things were quieter, he seemed glad of the com-

pany and would tell me about the pianos that had just

arrived. Our talks made real for me one of his funda-

mental beliefs, that each and every piano had com-

pletely individual characteristics, even if of the same

manufacturer and age.

Sometimes he knew all the details, had even met

the owners and talked about their instrument with them

and knew intimately how they had treated it. Other

times he knew nothing beyond what he could see, feel,

or hear. Most often pianos came to him from auctions

and charity sales, their history anonymous. But even

then, like an expert in artifacts, he could deduce a great

deal: whether a piano had been played much or little,

whether it had been in an environment with the proper

level of humidity (one of his cardinal rules), whether

there had been children in the household, even whether

it had recently been transported by ship. (“The worst

thing you can possibly do to a piano,” he told me more

than once.) At these moments he was part detective,

part archaeologist, part social critic.

His attitude about how people treated their pianos

seemed to mirror his philosophy of life. While regret-

ting the depredations worked by children on keyboards

and strings, he regarded them as tolerable because the

piano was at least used and, as he put it, “au sein de la

famille” (“at the heart of the family”). It was more than

just any piece of furniture, but it was that, too, and if

drinks were spilled and stains bit into shiny finishes, it

was the price one paid for initiating the young to a joy

that should stem from familiarity rather than reverence.

Those who preserved their piano as an altar upon

which the art of music was to be worshipped irritated

Luc, but he was deeply respectful of serious musicians

who used and depended upon their instrument for their

livelihood.

Passage B by Arnold Steinhardt

Marc Lifschey, one of the greatest oboists of his

era, told me that after retiring as a performer and

teacher, he sold his oboe. On the face of it, giving up an

instrument you no longer use seems perfectly reason-

able, but nevertheless I was taken aback. Marc was not

merely an excellent oboist; he was a great artist. Still,

Marc didn’t do it alone. He and his oboe did it together.

Even in retirement, wouldn’t Marc have some sort of

lasting relationship with his oboe that transcended per-

forming on it? Wouldn’t he want to keep it if for no

other reason than as a reminder of the magnificent

music the two of them had made together?

Joseph Roisman, the distinguished first violinist of

the Budapest String Quartet, seemed to be content to

give up his beloved Lorenzo Storioni when he agreed to

sell it to me after the Quartet retired. But when I finally

met with him, he had second thoughts. “Steinhardt,” he

said to me plaintively, “I’ll sell the violin to you some

day, but for now I’m enjoying playing chamber music

with my friends every Friday night.” And that is exactly

what he did until his death a year or two later.

Lifschey and Roisman dealt with retirement in dif-

ferent ways, but their stories made me wonder about not

only what I’ll do with my violin if and when I retire,

but also about the very nature of a musician’s day-to-

day, year-to-year relationship with his instrument.

I began playing violin when I was six years old,

and now I’m seventy-six. It has been an integral part of

my life for the last seven decades. Does that make the

violin my very close friend? Well, yes. Sometimes. The

violin obviously can’t speak with words, but when I ask

something of it, the instrument can respond with an

astonishing range of substance and emotion. This is

friendship on a most exalted level.

There are other moments, however, when the

violin stubbornly refuses to do my bidding—when it

only reluctantly plays in tune, or makes the sound I

want, or delivers the music’s essence for which I strive.

Then I have to cajole, bargain or adjust to its every

READING TEST

35 Minutes—40 Questions

DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.

Each passage is accompanied by s everal questions.

After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each

question and ﬁll in the corresponding oval on your

answer docu ment. You m ay refer to the passages as

often as necessary.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

whim. Some friend; more like an adversary, you might

say.

Or is the violin my partner? A woman once went

backstage to congratulate the great violinist Jascha

Heifetz after a concert. “What a wonderful sound your

violin has, Mr. Heifetz!” she exclaimed. Heifetz leaned

over his violin that lay in its open case, listened intently

for a moment, and said, “Funny, I don’t hear a thing.”

My violin also lies mute

in its case without me—but, on

the other hand, I stand mute on the concert stage with-

out it.

1 . In Passage A, the parenthetical information in line 19

and lines21–23 mainly serves to:

A . specify how Luc identified certain aspects of a

piano’s history.

B . portray Luc as overly judgmental about piano

transportation.

C . describe the types of rules that visitors to Luc’s

shop were required to follow.

D. indicate some of Luc’s firm beliefs about piano

care.

2 . Based on the assertion in Passage A that Luc’s “atti-

tude about how people treated their pianos seemed to

mirror his philosophy of life” (lines 25–26), which of

the following statements would most nearly describe

Luc’s philosophy of life?

F. It’s better to live a full and imperfect life than not

participate because something might go wrong.

G. Life is a fragile gift that must be cherished and

kept safe at all times.

H . Living well is like playing the piano well; it

requires dedication and practice.

J. It’s important not to take life’s opportunities for

granted because they may not come a second time.

3 . As it is used in line32, the phrase bit into most nearly

means:

A . pinched.

B . ingested.

C . marred.

D. severed.

4 . In the third paragraph of Passage B (lines 61–65), the

author most clearly shifts from:

F. making an argument against musicians selling

their instruments to using evidence from his life to

support that argument.

G. introducing musicians he admires to explaining

why he hopes people admire him as a musician.

H. examining his own emotions about his violin to

explaining why musicians must develop a partner-

ship with their instruments.

J. discussing the connection between other musicians

and their instruments to pondering his own con-

nection with his violin.

5 . In Passage B, the statement that Lifschey “was not

merely an excellent oboist; he was a great artist”

(lines44–45) can best be described as:

A . a fact supported by details about Lifschey’s career.

B . a fact confirmed by experts quoted in the passage.

C . an opinion that the author attributes to Lifschey’s

colleagues and s

tudents.

D. an opinion that the author asserts but does not

explain.

6 . In Passage B, it can most reasonably be inferred that

Heifetz’s response to the woman who congratulates

him is intended to point out that:

F. the woman hears Heifetz’s violin differently than

Heifetz does.

G. the woman isn’t qualified to judge the quality of

Heifetz’s violin.

H. Heifetz enjoyed the woman’s humorous comment.

J. Heifetz’s violin doesn’t make sounds by itself.

7 . In Passage B, the author most directly indicates that

the violin is sometimes an adversary by stating that it:

A . lies mute in its case.

B . makes him adjust to its whims.

C . responds with a range of emotion.

D. can’t speak with words.

8 . Compared to Passage A, Passage B is more directly

focused on the:

F. damage a musician can do to an instrument.

G. characteristics of an instrument that give clues to

its history.

H . interdependence between musician and instrument.

J. benefits of making instruments available to young

children.

9. In contrast to the way the pianos are described in Pas-

sage A, the passage author’s violin in Passage B is

described as:

A . exhibiting unique characteristics.

B . having an active personality of its own.

C . sustaining damage from careless children.

D. being important to daily life.

1 0. Which of the following assertions about instruments is

most strongly supported by details provided in both

PassageA and PassageB?

F. Familiarity with your instrument is an important

part of the joy of playing music.

G . Instruments should be revered and never treated

like furniture.

H . Selling your instrument shows disrespect for the

music you have made together.

J. Maintaining proper humidity levels is essential to

preserving an instrument.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

Passage II

INFORMATIONAL: This passage is adapted from the arti cle

by Lauren Wilcox Puc howski).

It was never Kenney Holmes’s intention to become

a wedding singer. The grandson of West Indian immi-

grants, Holmes was raised in Gordon Heights, on Long

Island, in what he calls “a small black community

founded by like-minded thinkers,” families of immi-

grants and Southern blacks who, as Holmes says,

“didn’t come here to fool around” and who handed

down to their children their own keen sense of

ambition.

“We grew up in that kind of atmosphere,” he says,

“of positive thinking, of getting educated, whether or

not you had a degree.”

Like any American boy in the 1950s and ’60s, he

was fascinated with popular music: He listened to the

area’s one radio station, which “mostly played Sinatra”;

sometimes in the evenings, with a coat hanger stuck

into the top of his portable radio, he could pick up a

faint signal from WWRL, a rhythm and blues station in

New York City. When he was a teenager, his brother

brought home a guitar. “I was 16, it was a Sunday

night,” he says. “I sat down and played ‘I Can’t Get No

Satisfaction.’ I was addicted.”

While he was not a virtuoso, he was, he discov-

ered, good at making money at it. He learned three

songs—“Satisfaction” by the Rolling Stones, “And I

Love Her” by the Beatles, and “Shotgun” by Junior

Walker and the All Stars—and formed a band. “We

went out and sold it,” he says. “We could play those

three songs all night. We got pretty popular out on the

island, playing battle of the bands, fire halls, high

school proms, for $10 a night.”

Still, a career as a musician was not what he, or his

family, had had in mind. Over the next few years, he

says: “I did everything I could not to be a guitar player.

I went to college not to be a guitar player.” Thinking he

would be a psychiatrist, he took pre-med classes but

didn’t complete a degree. Along the way, he continued

playing nightclubs and parties.

In his mid-20s, he visited his brother in Washing-

ton. Washington looked, to Holmes, like a good place to

be an ambitious, career-minded black man, but it also

had a thriving music scene in nightclubs and hotel

lounges, and the next 15 years played out as a sort of

tussle between his creative pursuits and his more busi-

ness-driven impulses. Trying to work his way up in the

music scene, he played five and six nights a week in

nightclubs and wrote his own music. He started a

recording studio called Sound Ideas, which trawled

local talent for the makings of a hit song, but he found

the pickings slim.

The club scene, after a long while, began to wear

on him, as well. Unwilling to resign himself to the life

of a starving artist, when an agent approached him in

the early ’90s about specializing in wedding and private

parties, Holmes decided to try it.

It was a revelation. “I could make in one night

what I used to make in five,” he says. And “it changed

the culture of what I was doing.”

Holmes was well-suited for the role of event band-

leader. His production skills helped him control his

band’s sound, and his familiarity with country, big-band

and classical music made him popular with audiences

who wanted, as he says, “a tango or a Viennese wa

ltz,”

as well as Wilson Pickett.

Because business ebbs and flows with the seasons

and the economy, Holmes has always kept a variety of

sidelines, including a job driving a limousine for nine

years to put his oldest daughter through a private high

school and college. These days, at gigs, he hands out a

stack of million-dollar “bills” printed with his image

and his current enterprises: bandleader, commercial

mortgage broker, hard money lender.

Holmes uses as many as eight musicians and two

singers for weddings. He accepts turnover as a fact of

running a band, but his current core lineup has, in the

mercurial world of part-time performers, been fairly

steady. Sam Brawner, the drummer, and Atiba Taylor,

the sax player, have played with him for three and four

years, respectively, and Bruce Robinson, the key-

boardist, has played with him for 15.

This is perhaps partly because Holmes insists on

making music. During performances, he lets his musi-

cians take the lead and uses specialized, stripped-down

tracks, called digital sequences, to set the tempo and fill

in musical parts when necessary, ultimately preferring

the messy alchemy of live music to something more

canned. The musicians say that this is in contrast to

other bandleaders they’ve worked for, who often rely

heavily on recordings and use musicians more as visual

props. Holmes’s respect for the music endears him to

his musicians. “These guys play from the heart,” says

Robinson. “They’re not just trying to get through the

gig.”

11. The main purpose of the passage is to:

A. explain why Holmes’s musical tastes gradually

changed over time.

B. describe how Holmes’s hectic professional life

affects his personal life.

C . highlight the different instruments Holmes mas-

tered in becoming a famous musician.

D. document how Holmes eventually became an

enterprising bandleader.

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ACT-2176CPRE

1 2. One theme of the passage is that:

F. one’s previous experiences and pursuits can be

useful in achieving success.

G. talent is the most important factor in achieving

success in both business and music.

H. recognizing one’s limitations is necessary in over-

coming one’s failures.

J. pursuing one’s dreams should take precedence

over more practical matters.

1 3. Which of the following events referred to in the pas-

sage occurred last chronologically?

A. Taylor joined Holmes’s band.

B. Brawner joined Holmes’s band.

C. Holmes started driving a limousine.

D. Holmes started Sound Ideas.

14. Based on the passage, the residents of Gordon Heights

in the 1950s and 1960s would best be described as:

F. artistic and sophisticated.

G . driven and optimistic.

H . friendly and easygoing.

J. generous and dependable.

15. The main purpose of the third paragraph (lines 13–22)

is to:

A . indicate why Holmes preferred rhythm and blues

to Sinatra songs.

B . establish that Holmes’s parents disapproved of his

interest in music.

C . reveal that Holmes was considered a musical

prodigy.

D. describe what inspired Holmes to start playing

music.

1 6. The main idea of the fourth paragraph (lines 23–31) is

that:

F. Holmes was better at playing music than he was at

promoting his band.

G. Holmes’s band was able to earn money despite

having a limited repertoire.

H . Holmes’s band became a national phenomenon

despite the band members’ lack of musical talent.

J. Holmes would have had more success early on if

he had taken the time to learn more songs.

17. Based on the passage, the main reason Holmes eventu-

ally preferred playing music at weddings and private

parties to playing music i

n clubs was that:

A . he could play a wider variety of music at weddings

and private parties.

B . audiences at weddings and private parties were

easier to please.

C . weddings and private parties were more profitable.

D. weddings and private parties required less travel.

1 8. The main idea of the eleventh paragraph (lines 73–80)

is that:

F. Holmes often has to alter his musical style based

on which band members are a

vailable to play a

gig.

G . Holmes typically needs more band members to

play at weddings than he needs to play at private

parties.

H . Holmes’s core lineup of band members has been

relatively consistent for a business with a high

turnover rate.

J. Holmes’s core lineup of band members is con-

stantly changing because Holmes expects his

musicians to travel long distances.

19. It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage

that Holmes’s band members like playing music with

Holmes in part because, in contrast to other band lead-

ers, Holmes:

A. is familiar with big band, classical, and country

music.

B. allows band members to showcase their talents

during gigs.

C. played music in the Washington club scene for fif-

teen years.

D. uses sophisticated elements like digital sequences

during gigs.4

20. In the passage, the phrase something more canned

(lines86–87) most nearly refers to:

F. sound effects.

G . music videos.

H . improvised music.

J. recorded music.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

Passage III

INFORMATIONAL: This passage is adapted from the arti cle

“Photography Changes How Cultural Groups Are Represented

ian Institution).

The author of the passage is a citizen of the Muscogee (Creek)

Nation of Oklahoma.

Using photographs as educational resources pre-

sents particular challenges and must be done with care.

There is always more than face value in any photo, and

historical photos of American Indians are no exception.

Photography’s rise in the late nineteenth century coin-

cided with great change in American Indian communi-

ties—an era that capped over three hundred years of

diseases, wars, cultural disruption, and land disposses-

sion. As Indian people struggled to adapt to cata-

strophic changes to their old ways of living,

photographers took thousands of studio portraits and

made what they believed to be neutral ethnographic

images of the “vanishing Indian.” As Indian cultures

bent under pressure to assimilate into mainstream

America, photographers routinely captured images that

compared the new “civilized” Indian to the tradition-

bound “savages.” Indian delegations that traveled to

Washington, D.C., to defend tribal treaty rights were

photographed in studios and in front of federal build-

ings. Photographers also accompanied government

expeditions to the West where they documented tradi-

tional cultures, leading the way for tourists and com-

mercial photographers who followed, carrying their

cameras and preconceptions into Native American com-

munities. These efforts generated a legacy of photo-

graphic images of American Indian people that can

serve today as rich educational resources. But if used

carelessly, they can also fuel romanticized and stereo-

typical perceptions of American Indians.

Consider some of the many photographs of

Goyathlay, the Apache man who Mexicans named

“Geronimo.” He and other Chiricahua Apaches fought a

protracted war from 1863 to 1886 against the United

States for the right to live in their traditional homelands

rather than on reservations.

The Chiricahua Apaches’ fight for freedom cap-

tured the American imagination in the late nineteenth

century. “Geronimo,” especially, became a legendary

figure and a media phenomenon whose legacy has

lasted into the twenty-first century. He became synony-

mous with courage, daring, and savage ruthlessness.

World War II paratroopers shouted his name as they

jumped from airplanes into combat. Movies, television

shows, comic books, popular songs, posters, T-shirts,

and American cities have borne his image and name.

One photo that shows Goyathlay and three other Chiric-

ahuas in their camp just prior to surrendering to U.S.

forces in 1886 documents a critical and difficult day for

the people who had fought so diligently for their

freedom.

In another well-known studi

o portrait, circa 1890,

Goyathlay poses with a rifle. To late-nineteenth-century

Americans, Geronimo was a dangerous enemy, yet at

the same time a curiosity and romantic symbol of the

“Wild West.” This photo personifies the renegade image

but, strangely, it was taken about two to four years after

Goyathlay surrendered—while he was a prisoner of

war. Why, then, was this photo taken? What meaning

did it con

vey at the time? What must have been in

Goyathlay’s mind? What does the photo mean today? Is

it loaded with historical truths or is it as empty as the

prisoner’s bullet chamber?

A few years later, Goyathlay was photographed

again, this time in a more pastoral pose and place—

holding a melon in a garden with his wife and three of

their children. What was the meaning behind this

photo? Did people of the time see it as a simple family

photo, or did it personify the government’s policy

toward Indians at the time—subduing feared and hated

warriors, “re-educating” them, and teaching them to

farm in order to guide them toward a “better” way of

life? Ironically, the Apaches had long farmed as part of

the traditional life they fought so tenaciously to protect.

The educational potential of photographs is enor-

mous. However, photographs are not objective; they can

easily tell as many lies as truths. As much as any writ-

ten document, they have to be read with care in order to

be understood accurately in unbiased and non-

stereotypical terms. Every photo of people contains his-

tory, culture, and context. To do justice to the subjects

and their stories, it is crucial to fill in the information

gaps. In addition to conducting background research,

try putting yourself inside these photos—stand next to

Goyathlay, his peers, his wife, and their children, and

imagine their lives—you might begin to understand the

world from their points of view. Framed with factual

information and viewed empathetically, each photo-

graph can reach its richest potential as a significant

educational opportunity and resource.

2 1. Which of the following rhetorical techniques does the

author repeatedly use in the passage as a means to

engage the reader?

A. Forthright attacks on what he labels as readers’

misunderstanding of basic historical fact

B . Open-ended questions and appeals directed to

readers

C. Direct quotations from past readers of his work

that capture their responses to his ideas

D. Descriptions of his own experiences as a citizen of

the Muscogee (Creek) Nation of Oklahoma

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ACT-2176CPRE

22. It can most reasonably be inferred that the author’s

statements about the educational use of photographs

apply to photographs taken during what time period?

F. Any time period since photographs were first

taken

G. In the nineteenth century exclusively

H. Any time period prior to the digital age, but not

beyond

J. Only in the ten years after photographers first

joined government expeditions to the West

23. Which of the following words is most nearly given a

negative connotation in the passage?

A. Educational (line 1)

B. Old (line 10)

C. Romanticized (line 28)

D. Traditional (line 34)

24. Which of the following actions referred to in the pas-

sage most clearly characterizes a hypothetical event

rather than an actual event?

F. “Traveled to” (line 17)

G. “Defend” (line 18)

H. “Farmed” (line 72)

J. “Stand next to” (line 83)

25. Particular photographs of Goyathlay are referred to

and described by the author to support his claim that:

A. accurately understanding a photograph depends on

knowing the circumstances in which a photograph

was taken.

B. photographs can be used to date events in the life

of a legendary figure like Goyathlay.

C. anyone can control his or her public image

by becoming more involved in the field of

photography.

D. the merits of a photograph from the nineteenth

century depend on who took the photograph.

26. The author most strongly suggests that one reason

commercial photographers began to photograph Native

American communities was that commercial photogra-

phers were:

F. instructed to do so by the US government.

G. devoted to creating educational resources about

Native American communities.

H. committed to overcoming their preconceived ideas

about the West.

J. influenced to do so by the photographers who had

joined government expeditions to the West.

27. In the passage, the author notes that a strange aspect of

the photo of Goyathlay with a rifle is that the photo

was taken:

A. by an unknown photographer.

B. when Goyathlay was a prisoner of war.

C. with Goyathlay’s permission.

D. by a US government photographer.

28. The author directly refers to which of the following

aspects of the photograph of Goyathlay in a garden as

being ironic?

F. Goyathlay was not a gardener but instead was in

the midst of trying to stop the US government’s

attack on his people.

G. Goyathlay’s people had long practiced farming,

but the photo seemed to suggest that Goyathlay

had learned farming from others.

H. People do not automatically think of Goyathlay as

a man of peace.

J. For years it was assumed to be a photograph of

someone other than Goyathlay.

29. The author indicates that for the sake of an unbiased

interpretation, compared to reading written documents

with care, reading photographs with care is:

A. significantly more important.

B. slightly more important.

C. just as important.

D. slightly less important.

30. In line 86, the word framed is used figuratively to

describe:

F. the way background research can support the

proper viewing of a photograph.

G. a common means of preserving a photograph.

H. a technique in which a photograph is displayed

with factual information surrounding it.

J. the manner in which many photographs of

Goyathlay are displayed in museums.

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ACT-2176CPRE

Passage IV

INFORMATIONAL: This passage is adapted from Summer

Heinrich).

Adaptations of plants to deserts include dormancy

and a variety of structural and behavioral adaptations.

The majority of desert plants depend on a strategy that

capitalizes on small size. They are annuals that spring

up from dry, dormant, heat-resistant seeds. Some of

these seeds may wait up to half a century before they

are activated. The plants’ challenge is to be quick

enough to respond to rain so that they can produce their

seeds before the earth dries up again, while not jumping

the gun to start growth until there is sufficient water for

them to grow to maturity for seed production. Some

achieve this balance on a tightrope by “measuring”

rainfall. They have chemicals in their seeds that inhibit

germination, and a minimum amount of rain is required

before these are leached out. Others have seed coats

that must be mechanically scarred to permit sufficient

wetting for germination, and the scarring happens only

when they are subjected to flash floods in the riverbeds

where they grow. A plant in the Negev Desert releases

its seed from a tough capsule only under the influence

of water through a mechanism that resembles a Roman

ballistic machine. Its two outer sepals generate side-

ways tension that can fling two seeds out of the fruit,

but the two seeds are held inside by a lock mechanism

at the top. However, when the sepals are sufficiently

wetted, then the tension increases to such an extent that

the lock mechanism snaps, and the capsule “explodes”

and releases the seeds.

In moist regions where it rains predictably (though

not necessarily in abundance), we help agricultural

plants to capture the precipitation by scarring the soil to

facilitate the infiltration of the water into it, and hence

into the roots. Least runoff and maximum water absorp-

tion are achieved by plowing the soil. However, such a

strategy would not work in a true desert such as the

Negev. A different program is required there because

rain is infrequent and plowing would facilitate only the

evaporation of scarce water from the soil. The solution

applied by the peoples who inhabited the Negev in past

centuries was a practice they called “runoff farming.”

Farmers had mastered harnessing the flash floods that

rush down into the gullies by catching the runoffs—not

only by making terraces but also by building large cis-

terns into which the water was directed to be held for

later use. Remnants of these constructions still exist.

Water-storage mechanisms have been invented by

other organisms living in deserts, but mainly through

modifications of body plan. Many plants, especially

cacti and euphorbia, have the ability to swell their roots

or stems with water stores. Possibly the most familiar is

the saguaro cactus, Carnegiea gigantea, of the Sonoran

desert in the American southwest. It has a shallow root

system that extends in all directions to distances of

about its height, fifty feet. In one rainstorm the root

system can soak up 200 gallons of water, which are

transferred into its tall trunk. This trunk is pleated like

an accordion and can swell to store tons of water that

can last the plant for a year. The cactus has no leaves,

but the stem is green and can photosynthesize and pro-

duce nutrients as well as store water. The saguaro’s sur-

vival strategy requires it to grow extremely slowly. But

it lives a century or more.

Some desert animals similarly store water. The

frog Cyclorana platycephala, from the northern Aus-

tralian desert, fills up and greatly expands its urinary

bladder to use as a water bag be

fore burying itself in

the soil, where it spends most of the year waiting for

the next rain. While in the ground it sloughs off skin

and forms around itself a nearly waterproof cocoon that

resembles a plastic bag and reduces evaporative water

loss.

Desert ants of a variety of species (of at least

seven different genera) in American as well as Aus-

tralian deserts collectively called “honeypot ants” have

evolved a solution that combines water storage with

energy storage. Ants typically feed each other; and

some of the larger worker ants may take up more liquid

than the others, and others may bring more. Those that

take the fluid may gorge themselves until they distend

their abdomens up to the size of a grape, by which time

they are unable to move from the spot. They then hang

in groups of dozens to hundreds from the ceiling of a

chamber in the ant nest, where they are then the spe-

cialized so-called repletes that later regurgitate fluid

when the colony members are no longer bringing the

fluid in but rather needing it.

3 1. The fourth paragraph (lines 63–71) marks a shift in the

focus of the passage from:

A . plants that store water above ground to plants that

store water below ground.

B . animals that don’t go dormant to animals that do

go dormant.

C . desert-dwelling plants to desert-dwelling animals.

D. inhabitants of the Negev Desert to inhabitants of

northern Australian deserts.

3 2. Based on the passage, the author’s use of the word

“measuring” (line 12) most nearly describes the way

that some desert plants:

F. have roots that are extremely sensitive to moisture

levels in the soil.

G . have methods of delaying seed germination until a

certain amount of water is present.

H . are visibly more vigorous after a rainfall.

J. can calculate how many inches of rain have fallen

in recent days.

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ACT-2176CPRE

33. Which of the following statements best summarizes the

process by which the frog Cyclorana platycephala sur-

vives in the desert?

A. The frog stores water in its body, buries itself, and

conserves water until emerging at the next rain.

B. The frog buries itself, waits for rain, absorbs rain-

water through its skin, and emerges.

C. The frog forms a nearly waterproof cocoon around

itself, buries itself, and waits to emerge until it

needs water.

D. The frog buries itself, absorbs water through its

skin, and goes dormant until springtime.

34. Based on the passage, which of the following plants

and animals employ a communal strategy to survive in

the desert?

F. The saguaro cactus only

G. The saguaro cactus and the frog Cyclorana platy-

cephala only

H. The frog Cyclorana platycephala and honeypot

ants only

J. Honeypot ants only

35. The passage most strongly suggests that compared to

the frog Cyclorana platycephala, the honeypot ants are

unique in that they:

A. can store water inside their bodies.

B. live in Australian deserts.

C. combine water storage with energy storage.

D. go dormant during dry times.

36. Which of the following provides the best paraphrase of

lines 7–11?

F. Annual plants survive in deserts by making seeds

swiftly when conditions are right.

G. Annual plants in deserts make seeds during dry

conditions so the seeds will be ready when rain

arrives.

H. Dry conditions require the seeds of desert plants to

start germination prior to the arrival of rain.

J. The seeds of annual plants in deserts are designed

to wait years for the right conditions for growth.

37. Based on the passage, it can most reasonably be

inferred that the scarring some seeds require before

germination is accomplished through:

A. intense drying experienced between rainfalls.

B. internal tension from the seed capsule’s sepals.

C. chemicals in the seeds.

D. abrasion sustained during flash floods.

38. As it is used in line 26, the word extent most nearly

means:

F. length.

G. degree.

H. reach.

J. boundary.

39. According to the passage, which of the following

actions did people in the Negev Desert take in order to

farm there?

A. Plowing the soil

B. Widening gullies

C. Constructing terraces

D. Constructing aqueducts

40. Based on the passage, the pleats in the body of the

saguaro cactus:

F. increase the efficiency of photosynthesis.

G. allow the cactus to expand for storing water.

H. reduce evaporative water loss.

J. regulate the cactus’s growth.

END OF TEST 3

STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.

Passage I

In a particular playa (relatively flat, dry desert basin)

evidence shows that some large rocks have moved along

the surface, leaving shallow trails in the clay sediment,

some up to several hundred meters long. Three scientists

provided explanations for how these rocks moved.

Scientist1

In the spring, snowmelt from surrounding mountains

runs downhill and collects in the playa. At night, cold tem-

peratures cause this water to freeze around the rocks. When

temperatures rise again, the ice begins to melt, leaving a

layer of mud on the surface and ice “rafts” around the

rocks. The buoyancy of the ice rafts floats the rocks on top

of the mud such that even light winds can then push the

rocks along the surface. Evidence of this lifting is seen in

that the trails left by rocks are both shallow and only about

2/3 as wide as the rocks themselves. Due to the combina-

tion of ice, mud, and light winds, the rocks are able to

move several hundred meters in a few days.

Scientist2

Snowmelt from surrounding mountains does collect in

the playa during the spring. However, the temperature in

the playa does not get cold enough for ice to form. When

the playa’s surface gets wet, the top layer of clay trans-

forms into a slick, muddy film. In addition, dormant algae

present in the dry clay begin to grow rapidly when the clay

becomes wet. The presence of mud and algae reduces fric-

tion between the rocks and the clay. Even so, relatively

strong winds are required to push the rocks along the wet

surface, forming trails. Due to the combination of mud,

algae, and strong winds, the rocks are able to move several

hundred meters in a few hours.

Scientist3

Water does collect in the playa, producing mud and

ice. However, neither mud nor ice is responsible for the

rocks’ movements. The playa is located along a fault line

between tectonic plates. Minor vertical shifts in the plates

cause the rocks to move downhill, leaving trails. Due to the

combination of tectonic plate movement and strong winds,

the rocks are able to move only a few meters over several

years.

1. According to Scientist 2, friction between the rocks

and the clay is reduced by which of the following?

A. Ice only

B. Algae only

C. Ice and mud only

D. Mud and algae only

2. Suppose a researcher observed that wind speeds

greater than 80 milesperhour are needed to move the

rocks in the playa. This observation is consistent with

which of the scientists’ explanations?

F. Scientists1 and2 only

G. Scientists1 and3 only

H. Scientists2 and3 only

J. Scientists1, 2, and 3

3. Suppose that no seismic activity was recorded in the

playa where the trails left by the rocks are found. This

finding would weaken which of the scientists’

explanations?

A. Scientist1 only

B. Scientist3 only

C. Scientist1 and Scientist2 only

D. Scientist2 and Scientist3 only

4. Suppose it were discovered that a particular rock

formed a 200 m long trail in 72 hr. Would this discov-

ery support Scientist1’s explanation?

F. Yes; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev-

eral hundred meters in a few hours.

G. Yes; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev-

eral hundred meters in a few days.

H. No; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev-

eral hundred meters in a few hours.

J. No; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev-

eral hundred meters in a few days.

SCIENCE TEST

35 Minutes—40 Questions

DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.

Each passage is followed by several questions. After

reading a passage, choose the best answer to each

question and ﬁll in the corresponding oval on your

answer document. You may refer to the passages as

often as necessary.

You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

5 . Suppose that during one year there was no measurable

movement of any rocks in the playa during the spring.

Scientists 1 and 2 would most likely both agree that

this was due to the absence of which of the following

factors?

A. Algae

B. Snowmelt

C. Strong winds

D. Subzero temperatures

6 . Suppose that air temperature in the playa varies

between 4°C and 47°C. Would this information sup-

port the explanation of Scie

ntist2?

F. Yes, because ice cannot form in that temperature

range.

G . Yes, because ice can form in that temperature

range.

H . No, because ice cannot form in that temperature

range.

J. No, because ice can form in that temperature

range.

7 . Based on Scientist 1’s explanation, a rock trail that is

33 cm wide was most likely made by a rock with

approximately what width?

A . 10cm

B. 25cm

C . 50cm

D. 65cm

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ACT-2176CPRE

Passage II

When certain substances are added to diet cola, CO

gas is produced, generating a foam. Two experiments were

done to study this process.

In each trial, an apparatus like that shown in Figure 1

was used as follows: A jar was nearly filled with H

O and

fitted with a 2-holed lid. One end of a tube (Tube B) was

inserted through one of the holes and submerged. The other

end of Tube B was placed in an empty graduated cylinder.

Another tube (Tube A) was inserted through the other hole

in the lid. A certain solid substance was inserted into the

other end of Tube A, and the substance was secured by a

clamp. Tube A was then attached to a freshly opened bottle

containing 355 mL of diet cola. The clamp was removed,

releasing the substance into the diet cola. The foam that

was produced traveled into the jar, and liquid was trans-

ferred into the cylinder. The mass of CO

produced was

calculated based on the volume of liquid that was measured

in the cylinder after foaming had ceased.

Figure 1

Experiment 1

In each of Trials 1−4, a different 1 of 4 substances of

equal mass—a piece of chalk, a sugar cube, a fruit-flavored

piece of candy, or a mint-flavored piece of candy—was

added to a bottle of diet cola at 3°C. See Table 1.

Experiment 2

In each of Trials 5−8, Trial 4 from Experiment 1 was

repeated, except that the temperature of the diet cola was

different in each trial. See Table 2.

Tables 1 and 2 adapted from Christopher J. Huber and Aaron M.

Chemical Education, Inc., American Chemical Society.

Table 1

Trial Substance

Volume of liquid

in cylinder

(mL)

Mass of CO

produced

(g)

1 chalk 699 1.36

2 sugar cube 570 1.11

3 fruit candy 525 1.02

4 mint candy 631 1.23

Table 2

Trial

Temperature

(°C)

Volume of liquid

in cylinder

(mL)

Mass of CO

produced

(g)

5 10 598 1.130

6 25 539 0.969

7 45 501 0.844

8 60 476 0.766

bottle jar graduated

cylinder

Tube A Tube B

substance

lamp

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ACT-2176CPRE

8 . If another trial had been performed in Experiment 2

and 450 mL of liquid had been measured in the cylin-

der, the temperature of the diet cola in this trial would

most likely have been:

F. less than 25°C.

G. between 25°C and 45°C.

H. between 45°C and 60°C.

J. greater than 60°C.

9 . Suppose Trial 6 had been repeated, but the bottle of

diet cola had been opened and then left undisturbed at

25°C for 12 hours before it

was attached to the appara-

tus. Would the mass of CO

produced in this trial likely

be greater than 0.969g or less than 0.969g?

A . Greater, because over the 12 hours, the concentra-

tion of CO

in the diet cola would have decreased.

B . Greater, because over the 12 hours, the concentra-

tion of CO

in the diet cola would have increased.

C . Less, because over the 12 hours, the concentration

of CO

in the diet cola would have decreased.

D. Less, because over the 12 hours, the concentration

of CO

in the diet cola would have increased.

1 0. One millimole (mmol) of CO

has a mass of 0.044 g.

How many trials resulted in the production of at least

1 mmol of CO

F. 1

G. 4

H. 5

J. 8

1 1. According to Figure 1, which of Tube A and Tube B, if

either, had at least one end submerged in a liquid

before the clamp was removed?

A . Tube A only

B . Tube B only

C . Both Tube A and TubeB

D. Neither Tube A nor TubeB

12. Is the relationship between the volume of liquid in the

cylinder at the end of the experiment and the mass of

produced a direct relationship or an inverse

relationship?

F. Direct; as the volume of liquid that was measured

in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO

pro-

duced increased.

G . Direct; as the volume of liquid that was measured

in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO

pro-

duced decreased.

H . Inverse; as the volume of liquid that was measured

in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO

pro-

duced increased.

J. Inverse; as the volume of liquid that was measured

in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO

pro-

duced decreased.

13. Consider these steps that were performed in each trial.

1. Removing clamp

2. Measuring liquid in cylinder

3. Inserting a solid substance into TubeA

4. Attaching TubeA to a bottle of diet cola

According to the procedure, these steps were per-

formed in what sequence?

A . 3, 1, 2, 4

B . 3, 4, 1, 2

C. 4, 2, 3, 1

D. 4, 3, 1, 2

1 4. Assume that room temperature is 25°C. In how many

trials was the diet cola tested at a temperature lower

than room temperature?

F. 1

G . 2

H . 5

J. 8

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ACT-2176CPRE

Passage III

Scientists studied the effects of pH and of nickel con-

centration on plant growth and on the uptake of iron and

zinc by plants. Recently germinated seedlings of SpeciesM

and Species U were fed 1 of 12 nutrient solutions (Solu-

tions 1−12) for 8 days and then were harvested. Solu-

tions 1−12 differed only in pH and/or nickel concentration.

Table 1 shows, for each species, the average dry mass of

the plants that were fed each nutrient solution. Figure 1

shows, for each species, the average iron content and the

average zinc content of the plants that were fed Solu -

tions1−4.

Figure 1

15. According to Figure 1, as the nickel concentration in

the nutrient solutions increased, the average iron con-

tent of SpeciesM plants:

A. increased only.

B. decreased only.

C. increased, then decreased.

D. decreased, then increased.

average iron or zinc content (μg/g*)

1,000

900

800

700

600

500

400

300

200

100

0 5 10 15

nickel concentration (μM)

*μg/g = micrograms of iron or zinc per gram of plant dry

mass

Key

Species M

Species U

Species M

Species U

iron zinc

Table 1

Solution pH

Nickel

concentration

(μM*)

Average dry mass (g)

of plants of Species:

017 00 33.9 10.7

027 05 28.8 10.7

037 10 23.8 09.6

047 15 18.7 08.5

056 00 33.9 09.2

066 05 28.8 09.2

076 10 23.8 08.1

086 15 18.7 07.0

095 00 27.8 07.7

10 5 05 22.7 07.7

11 5 10 17.6 06.6

12 5 15 12.4 05.4

*μM = micromoles per liter

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ACT-2176CPRE

1 6. According to Table 1, the Species U plants that were

fed the solution that had a pH of 6 and a nickel concen-

tration of 10 μM had an average dry mass of:

F. 07.0g.

G. 08.1g.

H. 09.2g.

J. 23.8g.

1 7. According to Table1, SpeciesM plants that were fed a

nutrient solution with which of the following combina-

tions of pH and nickel concentration had the greatest

average dry mass?

pH nickel concentration

A . 6 0μM

B . 6 5μM

C . 5 0μM

D. 5 5μM

18. According to Table 1 and Figure 1, the Species M

plants that were fed Solution 3 had an average zinc

content of:

F. 100μg/g.

G . 150μg/g.

H . 200μg/g.

J. 400μg/g.

19. According to Table 1 and Figure 1, for the Species M

plants that were fed Solutions 1−4, what was the order

of the nutrient solutions, from the solution that

resulted in the lowest average iron content to the solu-

tion that

resulted in the highest average iron content?

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 4, 3, 2

C . 4, 2, 1, 3

D. 4, 3, 2, 1

2 0. According to Table 1, compared to the average dry

mass of Species U plants that were fed Solution 3, the

average dry mass of Species M plants that were fed

Solution 6 was approximately:

F. as great.

G. as great.

H. 2 times as great.

J. 3 times as great.

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ACT-2176CPRE

Passage IV

Ammonia (NH

) can be produced according to the

chemical equation

+ 3H

2NH

The equilibrium arrow ( ) indicates that this reaction

proceeds in both directions until it is at equilibrium, so that

both the forward reaction (production of NH

) and the

backward reaction (production of N

and H

) occur at the

same rate. Equilibrium can be shifted forward or backward

by changing the temperature, pressure, or concentration of

reactants or products.

Two experiments were done using the following appa-

ratus to produce NH

In each trial, Steps1−4 occurred:

1. A fresh catalyst (CatalystW, X, Y, orZ), 160 kg of H

and 745 kg of N

were placed in the reactor.

2. The H

and N

reacted at a constant temperature and a

constant pressure until equilibrium was established.

3. A mixture of NH

and any unreacted H

and N

flowed

through Pipe A to a −50°C condenser at 1 atmosphere

(atm) of pressure.

4. NH

condensed and exited the apparatus. (H

and N

not condense at −50°C.) Any unreacted H

and N

flowed into PipeB, returning to the reactor.

Steps 2−4 reoccurred in cycles until no more H

and N

returned from the condenser.

Experiment1

A set of 9 trials was conducted with each of the 4 cat-

alysts. For each set, the pressure was 150 atm; within each

set, the temperature was different for each trial. Figure 1

shows, for each trial, the number of cycles of Steps 2−4.

Figure 1

Experiment2

Four sets of 9 trials each were conducted with Cata-

lyst Z. For each set, the temperature was different; within

each set, the pressure was different for each trial. Figure 2

shows, for each trial, the amount of NH

produced in the

first cycle of Steps2−4.

Figure 2

temperature (°C)

number of cycles

300 350 400

450

500

Key

Catalyst W

Catalyst X

Catalyst Y

Catalyst Z

Pipe A

Pipe B

reactor

condenser

diagram of apparatus

pressure (atm)

amount of NH

(kg)

700

600

500

400

300

200

100

100 150 200

250

300

Key

300°C

350°C

400°C

450°C

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ACT-2176CPRE

Diagram and figures adapted from Jayant M. Modak, “Haber

Sciences.

2 1. According to the results of Experiment 1, for any given

catalyst, as the temperature was increased, the number

of cycles needed to complete the reaction:

A. increased only.

B . decreased only.

C. increased, then decreased.

D. decreased, then increased.

2 2. In Experiment 1, 26 cycles were needed to complete

the reaction at 450°C when which catalyst was used?

F. CatalystW

G . CatalystX

H . CatalystY

J. CatalystZ

23. The movement of H

and N

through the apparatus as

Steps 1−4 occurred is best represented by which of the

following expressions?

A . Reactor→ condenser→ PipeA→ PipeB

B . Condenser→ reactor→ PipeA→ PipeB

C . Reactor→ PipeA→ condenser→ PipeB

D. Condenser→ PipeA→ reactor→ PipeB

2 4. Consider th

e results of Experiment 1 for 375°C. All

the H

and N

were consumed in less than 20 cycles

when which catalysts were used?

F. Catalysts W and X only

G. Catalysts Y and Z only

H . Catalysts W, X, and Y only

J. Catalysts X, Y, and Z only

2 5. If a trial had been performed in Experiment 2 at 425°C

and 225 atm, the amount of NH

produced would most

likely have been:

A . less than 230kg.

B . between 230kg and 320kg.

C . between 320kg and 410kg.

D. greater than 410kg.

2 6. At 1 atm of pressure, the melting point of NH

−77°C and the boiling point of NH

is −33°C. Based

on this information and the description of the appara-

tus, when the NH

exited the condenser, was it more

likely a solid or a liquid?

F. Solid, because the temperature of the condenser

was lower than the melting point of NH

and the

boiling point of NH

G . Solid, because the temperature of the condenser

was between the melting point of NH

and the

boiling point of NH

H . Liquid, because the temperature of the condenser

was higher than the melting point of NH

and the

boiling point of NH

J. Liquid, because the temperature of the condenser

was between the melting point of NH

and the

boiling point of NH

2 7. Consider the trial in Experiment 2 that produced

550 kg of NH

. Based on Figure 1, the number of

cycles that were needed to complete the reaction in this

trial was most likely:

A . less than 5.

B . between 5 and 10.

C . between 10 and 15.

D. greater than 15.

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ACT-2176CPRE

Passage V

As a sound wave travels through a medium, the wave

becomes attenuated (loses energy). The attenuation coeffi-

cient, α, is the rate at which the wave’s intensity level (a

measure of sound volume) decreases with distance as a

result of this energy loss; the greater the value of α , the

greater the decrease in intensity level with distance.

Figure 1 shows, for waves of 3 different frequencies (in

hert

z, Hz), how α (in decibels per kilometer, dB/km) varies

with temperature in air at 10% relative humidity.

Figure 1

Figure 2 shows, for waves of 3 different frequencies,

how α varies with relative humidity in air at 20°C.

Figure 2

Figures adapted from Richard Lord, “Calculation of Absorption of

α (dB/km)

−20 0 20 40 60 80

100

temperature (°C)

Key

1,000 Hz

 500 Hz

 200 Hz

α (dB/km)

10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 9

relative humidity (percent)

Key

1,000 Hz

 500 Hz

 200 Hz

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ACT-2176CPRE

2 8. What is the approximate maximum α shown in

Figure 1 for a 200 Hz sound wave in air at 10% relative

humidity, and at approximately what temperature does

that maximum occur?

α (dB/km) temperature(°C)

F. 3.0 − 5

G . 3.0 35

H . 9.5 −5

J. 9.5 35

29. Based on Figure 2, the attenuation coefficient for a

1,000 Hz sound wave in air at 20°C reaches a minimum

value at a relative humidity closest to which of the

following?

A . 25%

B . 45%

C . 65%

D. 85%

30. For the range of temperatures and the range of relative

humidities shown in Figures1 and2, respectively, is α

for a 200 Hz sound wave more strongly affected by

changes in temperature or by changes in relative

humidity?

F. Temperature, because the maximum variation in α

is about 0.5 dB/km in Figure 1 but about 2.5 dB/km

in Figure2.

G . Temperature, because the maximum variation in α

is about 2.5 dB/km in Figure 1 but about 0.5 dB/km

in Figure2.

H . Relative humidity, because the maximum variation

in α is about 0.5 dB/km in Figure 1 but about

2.5 dB/km in Figure 2.

J. Relative humidity, because the maximum variation

in α is about 2.5 dB/km in Figure 1 but about

0.5dB/km in Figure2.

31. Consider a 1,000 Hz sound wave in air at 10% relative

humidity. At how many of the temperatures shown in

Figure 1 does α for this wave have a value of

18dB/km?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

3 2. Suppose that 2 sound waves—a 150 Hz wave and a

1,100 Hz wave—are simultaneously emitted from a

speaker into air at 20°C and 45% relative humidity.

Based o

n Figure 2, as the waves travel away from the

speaker, the intensity level of which wave will more

likely decrease at the greater rate due to attenuation?

F. The 150 Hz wave, because the value of α is lesser

for the 150 Hz wave than for the 1,100Hz wave.

G. The 150 Hz wave, because the value of α is greater

for the 150 Hz wave than for the 1,100 Hz wave.

H. The 1,100 Hz wave, because the value of α is

lesser for the

1,100 Hz wave than for the 150 Hz

wave.

J. The 1,100 Hz wave, because the value of α is

greater for the 1,100 Hz wave than for the 150 Hz

wave.

3 3. The graph below shows, for sound waves of 3 different

frequencies, how α varies with relative humidity in air

at a particular temperature.

Based on Figure 1, the particular air temperature is

most likely which of the following?

A . −20°C

B . 000°C

C. 020°C

D. 100°C

α (dB/km)

10 20 30 40 5

relative humidity (percent)

1,000 Hz

500 Hz

200 Hz

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

Passage VI

Three studies compared the effects of 5 sweeteners

(SweetenersQ−U) on food consumption by rats and on the

concentrations of leptin and ghrelin (hormones that regu-

late appetite) in the blood of rats. Sweeteners Q−U differ

only in the percent by mass of fructose and of glucose (see

Table1).

S tudy1

Each of 5 groups (Groups 1−5) of rats was assigned a

solution having a 100 g/L concentration of 1 o

f the

5 sweeteners. Each rat was placed in a separate cage and

provided unlimited access to the assigned sweetener solu-

tion and to solid food for 56 days. Table 2 shows, for each

group, the amounts of sweetener solution and solid food

consumed per rat per day. On Day 56, blood was collected

from each rat for analysis in Studies2 and3.

Table2 adapted from Heather R. Light et al., “The Type of Caloric

Sweetener Added to Water Influences Weight Gain, Fat Mass, and

the Society for Experimental Biology and Medicine.

S tudy2

A 1 mL blood sample from each rat was placed in a

separate test tube containing 0.2 mL of IndicatorN (which

reacts with leptin to form a blue dye). The concentration of

blue dye in each tube was directly proportional to the leptin

concentration in the blood sample. Table 3 shows the leptin

concentration per sample for each group.

Study3

Study 2 was repeated, except that Indicator P (which

reacts with ghrelin to form a yellow dye) was used instead

of Indicator N. The concentration of yellow dye in each

tube was directly proportional to the ghrelin concentration

in the blood sample (see Table4).

Tables 3 and 4 adapted from Andreas Lindqvist, Annemie

Baelemans, and Charlotte Erlanson-Albertsson, “Effects of

Sucrose, Glucose and Fructose on Peripheral and Central Appetite

Table3

Group Sweetener

Leptin

concentration

per sample

(pM*)

1Q 804

2R 622

3S 553

4T 475

5U 251

*picomolar

Table4

Group Sweetener

Ghrelin

concentration

per sample

(pM)

1Q 0,852

2R 1,125

3S 1,279

4T 1,450

5U 1,758

Table1

Sweetener

Percent by mass of:

fructose glucose

Q 000 100

R 042 058

S 050 050

T 055 045

U 100 000

Table2

Group Sweetener

Amount consumed

per rat per day

sweetener

solution

(mL)

solid

food

(g)

1Q 73 09

2R 55 14

3S 52 16

4T 48 18

5U 29 23

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-2176CPRE

3 4. In Study 1, as the ratio of fructose to glucose in the

sweetener solutions increased, the amount of sweet-

ener solution consumed per rat per day:

F. increased only.

G. decreased only.

H. increased and then decreased.

J. decreased and then increased.

3 5. In Study 1, the amount of sweetener solution con-

sumed daily by each rat could be measured because

which of the following steps had been taken?

A. The rats’ ac

cess to solid food had been restricted.

B . The rats’ access to solid food had not been

restricted.

C. The rats had been placed in the same cage.

D. The rats had been placed in separate cages.

3 6. Suppose that a sweetener composed of 46% fructose

and 54% glucose by mass had been tested in Study 1.

Based on Table 1 and the results of Study 3, the ghrelin

concentration per sample would most likely have been:

F. less than 852pM.

G. between 852pM and 1,125pM.

H. between 1,125pM and 1,279pM.

J. greater than 1,279pM.

3 7. Consider the claim “The group of rats that consumed

the lowest amount of solid food per rat per day was

also the group that had the lowest concentration of

leptin per sample.” Do the results of Studies 1 and 2

support this claim?

A . Yes; the rats in Group 1 consumed the lowest

amount of solid food per rat per day and also had

the lowest concentration of leptin per sample.

B . Yes; the rats in Group 5 consumed the lowest

amount of solid food per rat per day and also had

the lowest concentration of leptin per sample.

C . No; the rats in Group 1 consumed the lowest

amount of solid food per rat per day, but the rats in

Group 5 had the lowest concentration of leptin per

sample.

D. No; the rats in Group 5 consumed the lowest

amount of solid food per rat per day, but the rats in

Group 1 had the lowest concentration of leptin per

sample.

3 8. Which of the following groups of rats should have

been included in Study 1 to serve as a control for the

effect of consuming a sweetener solution on the con-

sumption of solid food by rats? A group of rats that

had access:

F. only to water.

G. only to solid food.

H. only to water and solid food

J. to neither water nor solid food.

3 9. Consider the sweetener that resulted in a solid food

consumption of 16 g per rat per day in Study 1. Based

on Table 1, how many grams of fructose would be

present in 200g of this sweetener?

A . 050g

B . 100g

C . 150g

D. 200g

4 0. The experimental designs of Studies 2 and 3 were

identical with respect to which of the factors listed

below, if either?

I. The chemical indicator tha

t was used

II. The hormone with which the chemical indica-

tor reacted

F. I only

G . II only

H . Both I and II

J. Neither I nor II

END OF TEST 4

STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.

Practice Writing Test

Directions

This is a test of your writing skills. You will have forty (40) minutes to read the prompt, plan your

response, and write an essay in English. Before you begin working, read all material in this test

booklet carefully to understand exactly what you are being asked to do.

You will write your essay on the lined pages in the answer document provided. Your writing on

those pages will be scored. You may use the unlined pages in this test booklet to plan your

essay. Your work on these pages will not be scored.

Your essay will be evaluated based on the evidence it provides of your ability to:

• clearly state your own perspective on a complex issue and analyze the relationship

between your perspective and at least one other perspective

• develop and support your ideas with reasoning and examples

• organize your ideas clearly and logically

• communicate your ideas effectively in standard written English

Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

WRITING TEST

BOOKLET

PO Box 168

Iowa City, IA 52243-0168

Form 21BM20

NOTE: This test material is the condential copyrighted property of ACT, Inc., and may not be copied,

reproduced, sold, scanned, emailed, or otherwise transferred without the prior express written permission

of ACT, Inc. Violators of ACT’s copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.

You must take the multiple-choice tests before you take the writing test.

Your Signature:

(Do not print.)

Print Your Name Here:

Your Date of Birth:

– –

Month Day Year

Extracurricular Activities and Codes of Conduct

For many students, extracurricular activities are a meaningful part of the high school experience.

These activities allow students to develop their skills in areas such as sports, music, and drama

while building relationships with peers and gaining experience performing or competing. But at

many schools, students who participate in extracurricular activities are subject to special codes of

conduct. These codes often establish high standards for academic performance and behavior, and

students must meet the standards to stay eligible for their activities. Should students who

participate in extracurricular activities be subject to special codes of conduct?

Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking

about the question above.

Perspective One Perspective Two Perspective Three

All school rules and

standards must apply

equally to every

student. It is unfair to

hold students who play

sports or music to

higher standards than

students who do not.

Participation in school

activities is a privilege,

not a right. It is fair to

ask students to earn

this privilege by

studying hard and

behaving themselves.

School programs

should be open to

all students. Not all

students can meet high

standards, which means

not all students

can participate in

extracurricular

activities.

Essay Task

Write a unified, coherent essay in which you address the question of whether

students who participate in extracurricular activities should be subject to

special codes of conduct. In your essay, be sure to:

• clearly state your own perspective and analyze the relationship between

your perspective and at least one other perspective

• develop and support your ideas with reasoning and examples

• organize your ideas clearly and logically

• communicate your ideas effectively in standard written English

Your perspective may be in full agreement with any of those given, in partial

agreement, or completely different.

Form 21BM20

Planning Your Essay

Your work on these prewriting pages will not be scored.

Use the space below and on the back cover to generate ideas and plan your essay. You may

wish to consider the following as you think critically about the task:

Strengths and weaknesses of different perspectives on the issue

• What insights do they offer, and what do they fail to consider?

• Why might they be persuasive to others, or why might they fail to persuade?

Your own knowledge, experience, and values

• What is your perspective on this issue, and what are its strengths and weaknesses?

• How will you support your perspective in your essay?

Note

y For your practice essay, you will need scratch paper to plan your essay and four lined

sheets of paper for your response.

y On test day, if you are taking the paper test, you will receive a test booklet with space to

plan your essay and an answer document with four lined pages on which to write your

response.

y Read pages 71–73 for information and instructions on scoring your practice

writing test.

Cut Here

How to Score the

Multiple-Choice Tests

Follow the instructions below and on the

following pages to score your practice multiple-

choice tests and review your performance.

Raw Scores

The number of questions you answered

correctly on each test section is a raw score.

Because there are many forms of the ACT, each

with different questions, the difculty level

varies between the forms. A raw score of 35 on

one form of the mathematics test section, for

example, may be about as difcult to earn as

a raw score of 37 on another form of that test

section.

Computing raw scores: To compute your raw

scores, check your answers with the scoring

information in the scoring keys and conversion

table, starting on the next page and do the

following:

1. Mark a one (1) in the blank for each question

answered correctly.

2. Count the number of correct answers

for each of the four multiple-choice test

sections.

3. Add up the total number correct for each

category and test section and capture it as

directed beneath its scoring key.

These numbers are your raw scores on the

individual multiple-choice test sections. The

highest raw score for a given test section is

the number of questions included on that test

section:

• English: 75

• Mathematics: 60

• Reading: 40

• Science: 40

Note: Raw scores are also provided as part

of the Summary Report for each test section

taken online in TestNav.

English Test 1 Section

English Scoring Key (for Form 2176CPRE)

English Reporting Categories

(Capture raw scores/correct answers.)

Production of Writing (POW) = of 23

Knowledge of Language (KLA) = of 12

Conventions of Standard English (CSE) = of 40

Total English (POW + KLA + CSE) = of 75

English

Number

Correct

Answer

Correct

(Mark 1)

Reporting

Categories

1 C CSE

2 J P O W

3 A KLA

4 F P O W

5 C KLA

6 J CSE

7 B KLA

8 G P O W

9 A CSE

10 J P O W

11 B CSE

12 J CSE

13 C CSE

14 F P O W

15 C P O W

16 F CSE

17 D KLA

18 J CSE

19 C CSE

20 J KLA

21 B P O W

22 J CSE

23 D CSE

24 J CSE

25 B P O W

26 H P O W

27 B CSE

28 H P O W

29 A P O W

English

Number

Correct

Answer

Correct

(Mark 1)

Reporting

Categories

30 H CSE

31 A

CSE

32 G

CSE

33 A

KLA

34 J

CSE

35 A

CSE

36 H

KLA

37 D

CSE

38 G P O W

39 C P O W

40 F CSE

41 C CSE

42 J CSE

43 B P O W

44 G P O W

45 C P O W

46 J CSE

47 A CSE

48 G CSE

49 A CSE

50 H CSE

51 C P O W

52 H P O W

53 D CSE

54 J KLA

55 A CSE

56 J P O W

57 D CSE

58 G CSE

59 A KLA

60 G P O W

61 C CSE

62 J KLA

63 B CSE

64 G KLA

65 D CSE

66 G P O W

English

Number

Correct

Answer

Correct

(Mark 1)

Reporting

Categories

67 A CSE

68 G

CSE

69 C

P O W

70 G

CSE

71 A

CSE

72 J

P O W

73 A

CSE

74 G

CSE

75 A KLA

Mathematics Test 2 Section

Mathematics Scoring Key (for Form

2176CPRE)

Mathematics Reporting Categories

(Capture raw scores/correct answers.)

Preparing for Higher Math (PHM) = of 35

(A + F + G + N + S)

A = Algebra

F = Functions

G = Geometry

N = Number & Quantity

S = Statistics & Probability

Integrating Essential Skills (IES) = of 25

Modeling (MDL) = of 24

Total Mathematics (PHM + IES) = of 60

Note: Do not include MDL in Total Mathematics

raw score.

Math

Number

Correct

Answer

Correct

(Mark 1)

Reporting

Categories

1 E IES, MDL

2 J PHM-A

3 B IES

4 G IES

5 C PHM-A

6 F IES, MDL

7 B PHM-F, MDL

8 H PHM-F, MDL

9 D PHM-G

10 G PHM-N, MDL

Math

Number

Correct

Answer

Correct

(Mark 1)

Reporting

Categories

11 B PHM-S, MDL

12 G

PHM-G, MDL

13 D

IES, MDL

14 J

IES, MDL

15 A

PHM-A

16 K

PHM-A

17 D

PHM-G

18 J

PHM-N

19 A PHM-G, MDL

20 F PHM-S

21 E IES

22 G PHM-G

23 E PHM-F

24 H IES

25 D IES

26 G IES, MDL

27 E IES

28 H IES, MDL

29 C IES, MDL

30 H PHM-S

31 B PHM-N, MDL

32 K IES

33 D IES, MDL

34 F PHM-G

35 E IES, MDL

36 J IES

37 C PHM-S, MDL

38 F PHM-S, MDL

39 D PHM-N

40 K PHM-G

41 A PHM-A

42 J PHM-F

43 D IES

44 G PHM-A, MDL

45 E PHM-A

46 F IES, MDL

47 D PHM-S, MDL

Math

Number

Correct

Answer

Correct

(Mark 1)

Reporting

Categories

48 G IES

49 D

PHM-F

50 K

PHM-F

51 D

IES, MDL

52 K

IES

53 A

PHM-F

54 G

IES

55 B

PHM-N

56 K PHM-A

57 D IES

58 K PHM-F

59 B PHM-G, MDL

60 F IES, MDL

Reading Test 3 Section

Reading Scoring Key (for Form 2176CPRE)

Reading Reporting Categories

(Capture raw scores/correct answers.)

Key Ideas & Details (KID) = of 23

Craft & Structure (CS) = of 12

Integration of Knowledge & Ideas (IKI) = of 5

Total Reading (KID + CS + IKI) = of 40

Reading

Number

Correct

Answer

Correct

(Mark 1)

Reporting

Categories

1 D CS

2 F K I D

3 C CS

4 J CS

5 D IKI

6 J K I D

7 B K I D

8 H IKI

9 B IKI

10 F IKI

11 D CS

12 F K I D

13 B K I D

Reading

Number

Correct

Answer

Correct

(Mark 1)

Reporting

Categories

14 G K I D

15 D

16 G

K I D

17 C

K I D

18 H

K I D

19 B

K I D

20 J

21 B

22 F K I D

23 C CS

24 J CS

25 A IKI

26 J K I D

27 B K I D

28 G K I D

29 C K I D

30 F CS

31 C CS

32 G K I D

33 A K I D

34 J K I D

35 C K I D

36 F K I D

37 D K I D

38 G CS

39 C K I D

40 G K I D

Science Test 4 Section

Science Scoring Key (for Form 2176CPRE)

Science Reporting Categories

(Capture raw scores/correct answers.)

Interpretation of Data (IOD) = of 18

Scientic Investigation (SIN)= of 12

Evaluation of Models, Inferences & Experimental

Results (EMI) = of 10

Total Science (IOD + SIN + EMI) = of 40

Science

Number

Correct

Answer

Correct

(Mark 1)

Reporting

Categories

1 D EMI

2 H EMI

3 B EMI

4 G EMI

5 B EMI

6 F EMI

7 C EMI

8 J S I N

9 C S I N

10 J IOD

11 B S I N

12 F IOD

13 B S I N

14 H S I N

15 B IOD

16 G IOD

17 A IOD

18 H IOD

19 D IOD

20 J IOD

21 A IOD

22 G IOD

23 C S I N

24 J IOD

25 B S I N

26 J S I N

27 A EMI

28 F IOD

Science

Number

Correct

Answer

Correct

(Mark 1)

Reporting

Categories

29 B IOD

30 G

EMI

31 C

IOD

32 J

IOD

33 B

IOD

34 G

IOD

35 D

S I N

36 H

S I N

37 C EMI

38 H S I N

39 B IOD

40 J S I N

Scale Scores

To adjust for the small differences among

different forms of the ACT test, raw scores are

converted into scale scores. Scale scores appear

on reports sent to your school.

When your raw scores are converted into scale

scores, it becomes possible to compare your

scores with those of examinees who took different

test forms. For example, a scale score of 26 on the

mathematics test section has the same meaning

for any form of the ACT.

Converting Raw Scores to Scale Scores

Each ACT test section generates a single scale

score between 1–36. Use the Conversion of Raw

Scores to Scale Scores table to convert your raw

scores to scale scores. For each test section:

1. Locate your raw score, or the range of raw

scores that includes it, in the conversion table.

2. Locate the cell in the Scale Score column of

the row that corresponds to that raw score to

identify the scale score for that test.

3. As you determine your scale scores, enter

them in the blanks below.

Test section scale scores:

English =

Mathematics =

Reading =

Science =

Calculating a Composite Score

An ACT test generates a single Composite score of

1–36. Compute the Composite score by averaging

the four scale scores. To do this:

1. Add your four scale scores. Enter this sum of

scores in the blank below.

2. Divide the sum by 4. If the resulting number

ends in a fraction, round it to the nearest

whole number. (Round down any fraction less

than one-half, except for averages lower than

one; round up any fraction that is one-half or

more and/or less than one.)

3. Enter this number in the blank below. This is

your Composite score.

Composite of scale scores:

Sum of scores =

Composite score (sum ÷ 4) =

Note: If you left a test section completely blank

and marked no items, do not list a scale score for

that section and do not calculate a Composite

score.

To calculate your writing score, use The ACT

Writing Test Scoring Rubric on page 72.

Conversion of Raw Scores to Scale Scores (for Form 2176CPRE)

Scale Score

Raw Score

Test 1: English

Raw Score

Test 2:

Mathematics

Raw Score

Test 3: Reading

Raw Score

Test 4: Science

36 72–75 58–60 39–40 38–40

35 70–71 56–57 38 37

34 68–69 54–55 37 36

33 67 53 35–36 35

32 66 51–52 34 34

31 65 49–50 33 —

30 64 48 — 33

29 62–63 46–47 32 32

28 61 44–45 31 31

27 60 41–43 30 —

26 58–59 39–40 29 30

25 56–57 37–38 28 28–29

24 53–55 35–36 27 26–27

23 51–52 33–34 26 25

22 48–50 31–32 24–25 23–24

21 45–47 30 23 22

20 42–44 28–29 21–22 20–21

19 40–41 26–27 20 19

18 38–39 24–25 19 17–18

17 36–37 21–23 17–18 15–16

16 33–35 17–20 16 13–14

15 30–32 13–16 14–15 12

14 27–29 10–12 12–13 11

13 25–26 8–9 11 10

12 23–24 6–7 9–10 9

11 19–22 5 7–8 8

10 16–18 4 6 7

9 13–15 — 5 6

8 11–12 3 — 5

7 9–10 — 4 4

6 7–8 2 3 3

5 6 — — —

4 4–5 1 2 2

3 3 — — 1

2 2 — 1 —

1 0–1 0 0 0

Scoring the Practice

Writing Test

It’s difcult to be objective about your own

work. However, it’s to your advantage to read

your own writing critically, as doing so can help

you grow as a writer and as a reader. It may

also be helpful for you to give your practice

essay to another reader, such as a classmate,

parent, or teacher. To rate your essay, you and

your reader(s) should review the guidelines

and sample essays at http://www.actstudent.

org and then use The ACT Writing Test Scoring

Rubric, starting on the next page to assign your

practice essay a score of 1 (low) through 6 (high)

in each of the four writing domains (Ideas &

Analysis, Development & Support, Organization,

and Language Use).

Scoring Rubric

The rubric presents the standards by which

your essay will be evaluated. Readers will use

this rubric to assign your essay four unique

scores, one per writing domain. These are the

six possible rubric scores:

Score 6: Responses demonstrate effective skill

in writing an argumentative essay.

Score 5: Responses demonstrate well-

developed skill in writing an argumentative

essay.

Score 4: Responses demonstrate adequate skill

in writing an argumentative essay.

Score 3: Responses demonstrate some

developing skill in writing an argumentative

essay.

Score 2: Responses demonstrate weak or

inconsistent skill in writing an argumentative

essay.

Score 1: Responses demonstrate little or no skill

in writing an argumentative essay.

Because each domain receives its own score,

the four scores you assign need not be

identical. For example, you may nd that your

essay exhibits stronger skill in organization

than in the development of ideas. In this case,

you may determine that your essay should

receive a higher score in Organization than in

Development & Support.

Calculating Your Writing Score

The writing test section generates a single

score of 2–12. Complete these steps to calculate

your writing score:

1. Determine which score (range 1–6) in each

of the four domains best describes the

features of your writing.

2. Multiply each rubric score by 2 to get a score

for each domain (range 2–12).

3. Add your four domain scores. Enter this

sum of domain scores in the blank below

(range 8–48).

4. Divide the sum by 4. If the resulting number

ends in a fraction, round it to the nearest

whole number. (Round down any fraction

less than one-half; round up any fraction

that is one-half or more.)

Writing test rubric and domain scores:

Ideas & Analysis = x 2 =

Development & Support = x 2 =

Organization = x 2 =

Language Use = x 2 =

Sum of domain scores =

Writing subject score (sum ÷ 4) =

The ACT Writing Test Scoring Rubric

Ideas & Analysis Domain

Rubric Score Ideas & Analysis Scoring Standards

The writer generates an argument that critically engages with multiple perspectives

on the given issue. The argument’s thesis reects nuance and precision in thought

and purpose. The argument establishes and employs an insightful context for

analysis of the issue and its perspectives. The analysis examines implications,

complexities, tensions, and/or underlying values and assumptions.

The writer generates an argument that productively engages with multiple

perspectives on the given issue. The argument’s thesis reects precision in thought

and purpose. The argument establishes and employs a thoughtful context for

analysis of the issue and its perspectives. The analysis addresses implications,

complexities, tensions and/or underlying values and assumptions.

The writer generates an argument that engages with multiple perspectives on

the given issue. The argument’s thesis reects clarity in thought and purpose. The

argument establishes and employs a relevant context for analysis of the issue and

its perspectives. The analysis recognizes implications, complexities, tensions, and/or

underlying values and assumptions.

The writer generates an argument that responds to multiple perspectives on the

given issue. The argument’s thesis reects some clarity in thought and purpose. The

argument establishes a limited or tangential context for analysis of the issue and its

perspectives. Analysis is simplistic or somewhat unclear.

The writer generates an argument that weakly responds to multiple perspectives on

the given issue. The argument’s thesis, if evident, reects little clarity in thought and

purpose. Attempts at analysis are incomplete, largely irrelevant, or consist primarily

of restatement of the issue and its perspectives.

The writer fails to generate an argument that responds intelligibly to the task. The

writer’s intentions are difcult to discern. Attempts at analysis are unclear or irrelevant

Development & Support Domain

Rubric Score Development & Support Scoring Standards

Development of ideas and support for claims deepen insight and broaden context.

An integrated line of skillful reasoning and illustration effectively conveys the

signicance of the argument. Qualications and complications enrich and bolster

ideas and analysis.

Development of ideas and support for claims deepen understanding. A mostly

integrated line of purposeful reasoning and illustration capably conveys the signicance

of the argument. Qualications and complications enrich ideas and analysis.

Development of ideas and support for claims clarify meaning and purpose. Lines of

clear reasoning and illustration adequately convey the signicance of the argument.

Qualications and complications extend ideas and analysis.

Development of ideas and support for claims are mostly relevant but are overly

general or simplistic. Reasoning and illustration largely clarify the argument but may

be somewhat repetitious or imprecise.

Development of ideas and support for claims are weak, confused, or disjointed.

Reasoning and illustration are inadequate, illogical, or circular, and fail to fully clarify

the argument.

Ideas lack development and claims lack support. Reasoning and illustration are

unclear, incoherent, or largely absent.

Organization Domain

Rubric Score Organization Scoring Standards

The response exhibits a skillful organizational strategy. The response is unied

by a controlling idea or purpose, and a logical progression of ideas increases the

effectiveness of the writer’s argument. Transitions between and within paragraphs

strengthen the relationships among ideas.

The response exhibits a productive organizational strategy. The response is

mostly unied by a controlling idea or purpose, and a logical sequencing of ideas

contributes to the effectiveness of the argument. Transitions between and within

paragraphs consistently clarify the relationships among ideas.

The response exhibits a clear organizational strategy. The overall shape of the

response reects an emergent controlling idea or purpose. Ideas are logically

grouped and sequenced. Transitions between and within paragraphs clarify the

relationships among ideas.

The response exhibits a basic organizational structure. The response largely coheres,

with most ideas logically grouped. Transitions between and within paragraphs

sometimes clarify the relationships among ideas.

The response exhibits a rudimentary organizational structure. Grouping of ideas

is inconsistent and often unclear. Transitions between and within paragraphs are

misleading or poorly formed.

The response does not exhibit an organizational structure. There is little grouping of

ideas. When present, transitional devices fail to connect ideas.

Language Use Domain

Rubric Score Language Use Scoring Standards

The use of language enhances the argument. Word choice is skillful and precise.

Sentence structures are consistently varied and clear. Stylistic and register choices,

including voice and tone, are strategic and effective. While a few minor errors in

grammar, usage, and mechanics may be present, they do not impede understanding.

The use of language works in service of the argument. Word choice is precise.

Sentence structures are clear and varied often. Stylistic and register choices, including

voice and tone, are purposeful and productive. While minor errors in grammar, usage,

and mechanics may be present, they do not impede understanding.

The use of language conveys the argument with clarity. Word choice is adequate

and sometimes precise. Sentence structures are clear and demonstrate some

variety. Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are appropriate for

the rhetorical purpose. While errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics are present,

they rarely impede understanding.

The use of language is basic and only somewhat clear. Word choice is general and

occasionally imprecise. Sentence structures are usually clear but show little variety.

Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are not always appropriate for

the rhetorical purpose. Distracting errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics may be

present, but they generally do not impede understanding.

The use of language is inconsistent and often unclear. Word choice is rudimentary

and frequently imprecise. Sentence structures are sometimes unclear. Stylistic

and register choices, including voice and tone, are inconsistent and are not always

appropriate for the rhetorical purpose. Distracting errors in grammar, usage, and

mechanics are present, and they sometimes impede understanding.

The use of language fails to demonstrate skill in responding to the task. Word

choice is imprecise and often difcult to comprehend. Sentence structures are often

unclear. Stylistic and register choices are difcult to identify. Errors in grammar,

usage, and mechanics are pervasive and often impede understanding.

Next Steps

Your practice test score is an estimate of the

score that you would receive during an actual

administration of the ACT test. Reecting on

your practice experience can be useful as you

continue to prepare for test day.

Consider the following as you review your

scores as part of your general test performance:

lPacing: Did you run out of time? Reread the

information in Preparing for the ACT

Test

on pacing yourself. You may need to adjust

the way you use your time in responding to

the questions.

lDirections: Did you spend too much time

trying to understand the directions for the

test sections? Make sure you understand

them before test day.

lMisses: Review the questions that you

missed. Did you select a response that

was an incomplete answer or that did

not directly respond to the question

being asked? Try to gure out what you

overlooked in answering the questions.

lTypes: Did a particular type of question

confuse you? In reviewing your responses,

check to see whether a particular type of

question was more difcult for you.

A C T is committed to representing the diversity of society in all its aspects, including race, ethnicity, and

gender. Questions, passages, and writing prompts are chosen to reflect a range of cultures and are written

to not disadvantage any particular group of examinees. A C T employs extensive reviews and statistical

procedures to ensure the fairness of test materials.

A C T conducts research and periodically updates tests to provide test content that reflects classroom

instruction and continues to be a relevant predictor of college and career readiness. There may be subtle

differences between the A C T practice test in this booklet and the test students take on test day.

A C T endorses the Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education and the Code of Professional

Responsibilities in Educational Measurement, which guide the conduct of those involved in educational

testing. A C T is committed to ensuring that each of its testing programs upholds the guidelines in each

Code. You may locate copies of these Codes through the following organizations:

• Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education: American Psychological Association (https://www.apa.org/

science/programs/testing/fair-testing.pdf)

• Code of Professional Responsibilities in Educational Measurement: National Council on Measurement in

Education (https://www.ncme.org/resources-publications/professional-learning/library)

NOTE: This booklet is covered by federal copyright laws that prohibit the reproduction of the test

questions without the prior express, written permission of A C T, Inc. No portion of this booklet may

be copied or distributed without written permission of A C T.