Pennsylvania
Keystone Exams
Biology
Item and Scoring Sampler
2023–2024
Pennsylvania Department of Education Bureau of Curriculum, Assessment and Instruction—August 2023
Keystone Biology Item and Scoring Sampler—August 2023
ii
TABLE OF CONTENTS
INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
Introduction .................................................................1
General Introduction .......................................................1
About the Keystone Exams .....................................................1
Alignment ...............................................................2
Depth of Knowledge .......................................................2
Exam Format .............................................................2
Item and Scoring Sampler Format ................................................3
Biology Exam Directions .......................................................4
General Description of Scoring Guidelines for Biology ................................5
BIOLOGY MODULE 1
Multiple-Choice Items .........................................................6
Constructed-Response Item ...................................................23
Constructed-Response Item ...................................................32
Biology Module 1—Summary Data ..............................................44
BIOLOGY MODULE 2
Multiple-Choice Items ........................................................46
Constructed-Response Item ...................................................66
Constructed-Response Item ...................................................78
Biology Module 2—Summary Data ..............................................90
Keystone Biology Item and Scoring Sampler—August 2023
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INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
INTRODUCTION
General Introduction
The Pennsylvania Department of Education (PDE) provides districts and schools with tools to assist
in delivering focused instructional programs aligned with the Pennsylvania Standards (PS). These
tools include the standards, Assessment Anchor documents, Keystone Exams Test Definition,
Classroom Diagnostic Tool, Standards Aligned System, and content-based item and scoring
samplers. This 2023 Biology Item and Scoring Sampler is a useful tool for Pennsylvania educators
in preparing students for the Keystone Exams by providing samples of test item types and scored
student responses. The Item and Scoring Sampler is not designed to be used as a pretest, a
curriculum, or any other benchmark for operational testing.
This Item and Scoring Sampler contains released operational multiple-choice and constructed-
response items that have appeared on previously administered Keystone Exams. These items will
not appear on any future Keystone Exams. Released items provide an idea of the types of items that
have appeared on operational exams and that will appear on future operational Keystone Exams.
Each item has been through a rigorous review process to ensure alignment with the Assessment
Anchors and Eligible Content (AAEC). This sampler includes items that measure a variety of
Assessment Anchor and Eligible Content statements, but it does not include sample items for all
Assessment Anchor and Eligible Content statements.
The items in this sampler may be used
1
as samples of item types that students will encounter in
operational testing. Classroom teachers may find it beneficial to have students respond to the
constructed-response items in this sampler. Educators may then use the sampler as a guide to score
the responses either independently or together with colleagues within a school or district.
This Item and Scoring Sampler is available in Braille format. For more information regarding Braille,
call (717)-901-2238.
ABOUT THE KEYSTONE EXAMS
The Keystone Exams are end-of-course assessments currently designed to assess proficiencies
in Algebra I, Biology, and Literature. For detailed information about how the Keystone Exams are
being integrated into the Pennsylvania graduation requirements, please contact the Pennsylvania
Department of Education or visit the PDE website at http://www.education.pa.gov.
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The permission to copy and/or use these materials does not extend to commercial purposes.
Keystone Biology Item and Scoring Sampler—August 2023
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INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
Alignment
The Biology Keystone Exam consists of questions grouped into two modules: Module 1—Cells and
Cell Processes and Module 2—Continuity and Unity of Life. Each module corresponds to specific
content aligned to statements and specifications included in the course-specific Assessment Anchor
documents. The Biology content included in the Keystone Biology multiple-choice items will align
with the Assessment Anchors as defined by the Eligible Content statements. The process skills,
directives, and action statements will also specifically align with the Assessment Anchors as defined
by the Eligible Content statements.
The content included in Biology constructed-response items aligns with content included in the
Eligible Content statements. The process skills, directives, and action statements included in the
performance demands of the Biology constructed-response items align with specifications included
in the Assessment Anchor statements, the Anchor Descriptor statements, and/or the Eligible Content
statements. In other words, the verbs or action statements used in the constructed-response items
or stems can come from the Eligible Content, Anchor Descriptor, or Assessment Anchor statements.
Depth of Knowledge
Webb’s Depth of Knowledge (DOK) was created by Dr. Norman Webb of the Wisconsin Center for
Education Research. Webb’s definition of DOK is the cognitive expectation demanded by standards,
curricular activities, and assessment tasks. Webb’s DOK includes four levels, from the lowest (recall)
level to the highest (extended thinking) level.
Depth of Knowledge
Level 1 Recall
Level 2 Basic Application of Skill/Concept
Level 3 Strategic Thinking
Level 4 Extended Thinking
Each Keystone item has been through a rigorous review process and is assigned a DOK level. For
additional information about DOK, please visit the PDE website at http://static.pdesas.org/content/
documents/Keystone_Exams_Understanding_Depth_of_Knowledge_and_Cognitive_Complexity.pdf.
Exam Format
The Keystone Exams are delivered in a paper-and-pencil format as well as in a computer-based
online format. The multiple-choice items require students to select the best answer from four
possible answer options and record their answers in the spaces provided. The correct answer for
each multiple-choice item is worth onepoint. The constructed-response items require students to
develop and write (or construct) their responses. Constructed-response items in Biology are scored
using item-specific scoring guidelines based on a 0–3-point scale. Each multiple-choice item is
designed to take about one to one and a half minutes to complete. Each constructed-response
item is designed to take about eight minutes to complete. The estimated time to respond to a test
question is the same for both test formats. During an official exam administration, students are given
additional time as necessary to complete the exam.
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INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
ITEM AND SCORING SAMPLER FORMAT
This sampler includes the test directions and scoring guidelines that appear in the Keystone Exams.
Each sample multiple-choice item is followed by a table that includes the alignment, the answer
key, the DOK, the percentage
2
of students who chose each answer option, and a brief answer
option analysis or rationale. Each constructed-response item is followed by a table that includes
the item alignment, the DOK, and the mean student score. Additionally, each of the included item-
specific scoring guidelines is combined with sample student responses representing each score
point to form a practical item-specific scoring guide. The General Description of Scoring Guidelines
for Biology used to develop the item-specific scoring guidelines should be used if any additional
item-specific scoring guidelines are created for use within local instructional programs. The student
responses in this item and scoring sampler are actual student responses; however, the handwriting
has been changed to protect the students’ identities and to make the item and scoring sampler
accessible to as many people as possible.
Example Multiple-Choice Item Information Table
Item Information
Alignment Assigned AAEC
Answer Key Correct Answer
Depth of Knowledge Assigned DOK
p-value A Percentage of students who selected option A
p-value B Percentage of students who selected option B
p-value C Percentage of students who selected option C
p-value D Percentage of students who selected option D
Option Annotations Brief answer option analysis or rationale
Example Constructed-Response Item Information Table
Alignment
Assigned
AAEC
Depth of Knowledge
Assigned
DOK
Mean Score
Average
Score
2
All p-value percentages listed in the item information tables have been rounded.
Keystone Biology Item and Scoring Sampler—August 2023
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INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
BIOLOGY EXAM DIRECTIONS
Directions:
Below are the exam directions available to students. These directions may be used to help students
navigate through the exam.
There are two types of questions in this module.
Multiple-Choice Questions:
These questions will ask you to select an answer from among four choices.
• Read each question, and choose the correct answer.
• Only one of the answers provided is correct.
• Record your answer in the Biology answer booklet.
Constructed-Response Questions:
These questions will require you to write your response.
• Be sure to read the directions carefully.
• You cannot receive the highest score for a constructed-response question without
following all directions.
• If the question asks you to do multiple tasks, be sure to complete all tasks.
• If the question asks you to explain, be sure to explain. If the question asks you to
analyze, describe, or compare, be sure to analyze, describe, or compare.
• All responses must be written in the appropriate location within the response box in the
Biology answer booklet. If you use scratch paper to write your draft, be sure to transfer
your final response to the Biology answer booklet.
In addition, a module may also include scenarios. A scenario contains text, graphics, charts, and/or
tables describing a biological concept, an experiment, or other scientific research. You can use the
information contained in a scenario to answer certain exam questions. Before responding to any
scenario questions, be sure to study the entire scenario and follow the directions for the scenario.
You may refer back to the scenario at any time when answering the scenario questions.
If you finish early, you may check your work in Module 1 [or Module 2] only.
• Do not look ahead at the questions in Module 2 [or back at the questions in Module 1] of
your exam materials.
• After you have checked your work, close your exam materials.
You may refer to this page at any time during this portion of the exam.
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INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
GENERAL DESCRIPTION OF SCORING GUIDELINES FOR BIOLOGY
3 Points
• The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of the scientific content, concepts,
and/or procedures required by the task(s).
• The response provides a clear, complete, and correct response as required by the task(s).
The response may contain a minor blemish or omission in work or explanation that does not
detract from demonstrating a thorough understanding.
2 Points
• The response demonstrates a partial understanding of the scientific content, concepts,
and/or procedures required by the task(s).
• The response is somewhat correct with partial understanding of the required scientific
content, concepts, and/or procedures demonstrated and/or explained. The response may
contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
1 Point
• The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of the scientific content, concepts,
and/or procedures required by the task(s).
• The response is somewhat correct with minimal understanding of the required scientific
content, concepts, and/or procedures demonstrated and/or explained. The response may
contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
0 Points
• The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the
scientific content, concepts, and/or procedures as required by the task(s).
• The response may show only information copied or rephrased from the question or
insufficient correct information to receive a score of 1.
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BIOLOGY MODULE 1
MULTIPLE-CHOICE ITEMS
1. Some prokaryotic bacteria and certain eukaryotic microorganisms can survive in extremely salty
environments. Which characteristic do these organisms most likely have in common?
A. the presence of a nervous system
B. the ability to maintain homeostasis
C. the ability to perform photosynthesis
D. the presence of a nuclear membrane
671334671334
Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.1.1.1
Answer Key B
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 8%
p-value B 64% (correct answer)
p-value C 14%
p-value D 14%
Option Annotations A. Prokaryotes do not have nervous systems.
B. Key: Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes can regulate cellular
processes to maintain homeostasis.
C. Prokaryotes do not have the cellular machinery to perform
photosynthesis.
D. Prokaryotes do not have nuclei.
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2. Which statement best compares the plasma membrane in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A. The plasma membrane is a single layer of lipids in prokaryotes, but it is a bilayer in
eukaryotes.
B. The plasma membrane in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes separates the cell from the
external environment.
C. The plasma membrane is lined with ribosomes in prokaryotes, but it is lined with lipids in
eukaryotes.
D. The plasma membrane in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes contains chloroplasts for starch
storage.
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.1.2.1
Answer Key B
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 27%
p-value B 49% (correct answer)
p-value C 14%
p-value D 10%
Option Annotations A. The plasma membrane is comprised of a double layer of lipids in
both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
B. Key: The plasma membrane provides a barrier from the external
environment for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
C. The plasma membrane is composed of lipids in both prokaryotes
and eukaryotes. Ribosomes are located within the cytoplasm of
prokaryotic cells.
D. The plasma membrane is composed of lipids in both prokaryotes
and eukaryotes. Prokaryotes do not contain chloroplasts, and not
all eukaryotes contain chloroplasts.
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3. Use the chart below to answer the question.
Properties of Carbon
Property Value
number of neutrons 6
number of protons 6
number of electrons 6
atomic masses of stable isotopes 12, 13
The chart shows some properties of the element carbon. Which property is most responsible for
carbon’s ability to form complex biological macromolecules?
A. number of neutrons
B. number of protons
C. number of electrons
D. atomic masses of stable isotopes
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.2.2.1
Answer Key C
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 9%
p-value B 12%
p-value C 41% (correct answer)
p-value D 38%
Option Annotations A. The number of neutrons in the nucleus does not affect carbon’s
ability to form compounds.
B. The number of protons in the nucleus determines carbon’s
chemical identity but does not directly affect carbon’s ability to form
compounds.
C. Key: The number of electrons in carbon’s outer valence shell
determines the number and type of chemical bonds that carbon
can form with other atoms.
D. The atomic masses of carbon isotopes do not determine whether
carbon can bond with other atoms.
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THIS PAGE IS
INTENTIONALLY BLANK.
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4. Use the model below to answer the question.
Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Protein Formation Model
A teacher demonstrated protein formation to a science class. The model shows three steps the
teacher used in the demonstration. How can the steps in the model best be described?
A. In Step 1, amino acid monomers are present. In Step 2, the monomers are attached
together to form a protein polymer. In Step 3, more amino acid monomers are added to the
chain, making a larger protein.
B. In Step 1, nucleotide monomers are present. In Step 2, the monomers are attached
together to form a protein polymer. In Step 3, more nucleotide monomers are added to the
chain, making a larger protein.
C. In Step 1, amino acid polymers are present. In Step 2, the polymers are attached together
to form a protein monomer. In Step 3, more amino acid polymers are added to the chain,
making a larger protein.
D. In Step 1, nucleotide polymers are present. In Step 2, the polymers are attached together
to form a protein monomer. In Step 3, more nucleotide polymers are added to the chain,
making a larger protein.
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.2.2.2
Answer Key A
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 63% (correct answer)
p-value B 12%
p-value C 17%
p-value D 8%
Option Annotations A. Key: Amino acids are the monomers, or subunits, that assemble
into a protein polymer, which becomes a larger protein with the
addition of more amino acid monomers.
B. Nucleotides are the monomers of nucleic acids.
C. Monomers are the smaller subunits that assemble into a larger
polymer.
D. Nucleotides are the monomers of nucleic acids, and monomers are
the smaller subunits that assemble into a larger polymer.
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5. Use the information below to answer the question.
Student’s Claim: Carbohydrates are complex compounds made of
monosaccharides that function as data-storage molecules.
A student made the claim shown. Which statement best explains whether the student’s claim
iscorrect?
A. The student’s claim is correct because carbohydrates form DNA.
B. The student’s claim is correct because all complex molecules store data.
C. The student’s claim is incorrect because carbohydrates are simple compounds, not
complex ones.
D. The student’s claim is incorrect because nucleic acids, not carbohydrates, are the data-
storage molecules.
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.2.2.3
Answer Key D
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 8%
p-value B 12%
p-value C 20%
p-value D 60% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. DNA is formed by nucleotides.
B. Not all complex molecules store data.
C. Carbohydrates exist as simple compounds as well as complex
compounds.
D. Key: Nucleic acids store data encoded in the sequence of
nucleotides.
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6. Use the graph below to answer the question.
pH
Rate of Reaction
27810
Enzyme ZEnzyme YEnzyme XEnzyme W
Enzyme Reaction Rates
Which enzyme would most likely reach its maximum reaction rate in pure water?
A. Enzyme W
B. Enzyme X
C. Enzyme Y
D. Enzyme Z
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.2.3.2
Answer Key B
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 19%
p-value B 47% (correct answer)
p-value C 12%
p-value D 22%
Option Annotations A. The maximum reaction rate for enzyme W is near pH 2, which is too
acidic for pure water.
B. Key: The maximum reaction rate for enzyme X is near pH 7, which
is the pH of pure water.
C. The maximum reaction rate for enzyme Y is near pH 8, which is too
basic for pure water.
D. The maximum reaction rate for enzyme Z is near pH 10, which is
too basic for pure water.
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7. Genetic mutations can cause chloroplasts in leaf cells to lack pigment and appear pale yellow.
Which statement describes how a plant is most immediately affected by the presence of these
genetic mutations?
A. The ability to absorb minerals is reduced.
B. The rate of ATP production by mitochondria increases.
C. The sensitivity to changes in air temperature increases.
D. The amount of light energy transformed into chemical energy is reduced.
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.3.1.1
Answer Key D
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 15%
p-value B 8%
p-value C 11%
p-value D 66% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. Minerals are primarily absorbed through a plant’s root system.
B. The rate of ATP production would decrease due to decreased light
energy transfer.
C. Sensitivity to air temperature would not be the immediate effect of
the mutations.
D. Key: Chloroplasts that lack pigment would be unable to capture and
convert light energy, and the process of photosynthesis would yield
reduced results.
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8. Muscle cells have a comparatively large number of mitochondria. Which action does this
characteristic allow muscle cells to accomplish?
A. rapidly release chemical energy for use
B. rapidly convert carbohydrates into lipids
C. reduce oxygen demand when releasing stored energy
D. reduce carbon dioxide production when releasing stored energy
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.3.1.1
Answer Key A
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 55% (correct answer)
p-value B 15%
p-value C 19%
p-value D 11%
Option Annotations A. Key: Mitochondria transfer energy stored in glucose molecules
to molecules of ATP. Having more mitochondria in a muscle cell
enables the cell to generate ATP more quickly.
B. Mitochondria do not convert carbohydrate energy into lipids in
muscle cells.
C. Muscle cells have a higher demand for oxygen when releasing
stored energy during cellular respiration.
D. Muscle cells produce more carbon dioxide when releasing stored
energy during cellular respiration.
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9. Use the diagram below to answer the question.
ATP
ADP
Two Types of Cell Transport
type 1 type 2
The diagram shows two types of cell transport. Which pair of statements best compares the
twotypes of cell transport?
A. Type 1 does not require energy and molecules move with their concentration gradient.
Type 2 requires energy and molecules can move against their concentration gradient.
B. Type 1 does not require energy and molecules can move against their concentration
gradient. Type 2 requires energy and molecules move with their concentration gradient.
C. Type 1 requires energy and molecules move with their concentration gradient. Type 2
requires energy and molecules can move against their concentration gradient.
D. Type 1 does not require energy and molecules move with their concentration gradient.
Type 2 does not require energy and molecules can move against their concentration
gradient.
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.4.1.2
Answer Key A
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 55% (correct answer)
p-value B 26%
p-value C 12%
p-value D 7%
Option Annotations A. Key: Type 1 is a passive transport process that does not require
energy to move particles with their concentration gradient. Type 2
is an active transport process that does require energy from ATP to
move particles against their concentration gradient.
B. In type 1, particles are moving with their concentration gradient. In
type 2, particles are moving against their concentration gradient.
C. In type 1, particles do not require energy to move with their
concentration gradient.
D. In type 2, particles require energy to move against their
concentration gradient.
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10. Which statement best describes the role of the Golgi apparatus within the cell?
A. It is the site where glucose is oxidized to produce energy.
B. It is the site where lipids and proteins are translated and folded.
C. It is the site where DNA and RNA are stored, maintained, and controlled.
D. It is the site where proteins are sorted, packaged, processed, and modified.
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.4.1.3
Answer Key D
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 7%
p-value B 13%
p-value C 11%
p-value D 69% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. The oxidation of glucose occurs in the cytoplasm.
B. Lipids and proteins are translated and folded in the endoplasmic
reticulum.
C. DNA is stored in the nucleus.
D. Key: Proteins receive final processing in the Golgi apparatus.
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11. Which reaction helps maintain homeostasis when the body becomes dehydrated?
A. The skin starts to sweat.
B. The muscles contract rapidly.
C. The lungs exhale more frequently.
D. The kidneys produce concentrated urine.
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.4.2.1
Answer Key D
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 33%
p-value B 14%
p-value C 13%
p-value D 40% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. Sweating is a homeostatic method of decreasing body temperature.
B. Muscle contraction is a homeostatic method of increasing body
temperature.
C. Increased breathing rate is a homeostatic method of regulating gas
exchange.
D. Key: When the body is dehydrated, the kidneys will retain water by
producing urine with a higher concentration of solutes and a lower
concentration of water.
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Directions: Use the information presented on page 20 to answer questions 12 and13.
Thermophilic Bacteria of Yellowstone National Park
Yellowstone National Park has over 10,000 hydrothermal features, such as hot springs and geysers.
Volcanic activity below Yellowstone provides the heat for these features. The hydrothermal features
of Yellowstone include environments of extremes: high temperatures, high and low pHs, and high
sulfur content.
Microorganisms in Yellowstone’s hot springs were first discovered in 1966. These microorganisms
are called thermophiles. The presence of thermophiles in Yellowstone’s hydrothermal features can be
observed by the features’ bright colors and strong odors.
Almost all hot springs and geysers in Yellowstone host bacteria. Cyanobacteria exist in some of
Yellowstone’s hot springs. Cyanobacteria were the first photosynthesizers, more than 3 billion years
ago, providing oxygen to Earth’s early atmosphere. Other bacteria chemosynthesize, changing
hydrogen or sulfur into forms other thermophiles can use. One product of chemosynthesis is a gas
that smells like rotten eggs.
The table below shows some characteristics of three types of bacteria living in Yellowstone’s
hydrothermal features.
Characteristics of Three Thermophilic Bacteria in Yellowstone National Park
Type of
Bacterium
Ideal pH
Range
Ideal Temperature
Range
Metabolism
Hydrogenobaculum 3 to 5.5 55°C to 72°C
(131°F to 162°F)
chemosynthesis
using hydrogen,
hydrogen sulfide,
and carbon dioxide
as energy sources;
can use arsenic in
place of hydrogen
sulfide
Phormidium 6 to 8
35°C to 57°C
(95°F to 135°F)
photosynthesis
Synechococcus 7 to 9
52°C to 74°C
(126°F to 165°F)
photosynthesis by
day; fermentation
by night
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12. According to the theory of endosymbiosis, free-living cyanobacteria moved into some eukaryote
cells millions of years ago and evolved into the chloroplasts of plant cells. Which statement
correctly compares a cyanobacterium and a chloroplast?
A. Both have a cell wall.
B. Both contain a nucleus.
C. Both perform photosynthesis.
D. Both are single-celled organisms.
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.1.2.2
Answer Key C
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 12%
p-value B 12%
p-value C 62% (correct answer)
p-value D 14%
Option Annotations A. A chloroplast is a membrane-bound organelle and does not have a
cell wall.
B. Plastids do not contain nuclei, and cyanobacteria are prokaryotes,
which also do not contain nuclei.
C. Key: Both cyanobacteria and chloroplasts in plant cells undergo
photosynthesis for energy production.
D. Chloroplasts are not organisms.
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13. Which statement best contrasts the role of enzymes in thermophilic bacteria and the plants
living in Yellowstone National Park?
A. Enzymes of thermophilic bacteria store energy at higher sulfur concentrations than enzymes
of plants do.
B. Enzymes of thermophilic bacteria catalyze biochemical reactions at higher temperatures
than enzymes of plants do.
C. Enzymes of thermophilic bacteria control DNA replication in the nucleus at higher sulfur
concentrations than enzymes of plants do.
D. Enzymes of thermophilic bacteria control the water moving into and out of the cell at higher
temperatures than enzymes of plants do.
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.2.3.1
Answer Key B
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 19%
p-value B 57% (correct answer)
p-value C 13%
p-value D 11%
Option Annotations A. Enzymes do not store energy.
B. Key: Thermophilic bacteria can survive in extreme geothermal
environments because their enzymes function as biochemical
catalysts at higher temperatures than the enzymes of plants do.
C. Bacteria do not have nuclei.
D. Regulating water movement across cell membranes is not a
primary role of enzymes.
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CONSTRUCTED-RESPONSE ITEM
14. The model shows a biochemical reaction utilizing sucrase.
sucrose
active site
sucrase
H
2
O
glucose
fructose
Sucrase Reaction
Part A: Explain the role of sucrase in the reaction shown.
Part B: Identify one factor that can affect how sucrase functions, and explain what
effect this factor has on the reaction.
Factor:
Effect:
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SCORING GUIDE
#14 Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.2.3.2 Depth of Knowledge 2 Mean Score 1.16
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline
Score Description
3
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of how factors such as pH,
temperature, and concentration levels can affect enzyme function by
• explaining the role of sucrase in a chemical reaction,
AND
• identifying one factor that can affect how sucrase functions,
AND
• explaining the effect the identified factor has on the indicated reaction.
The response is clear, complete, and correct.
2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of how factors such as pH,
temperature, and concentration levels can affect enzyme function by completing two
of the three tasks described above.
The response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
1
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of how factors such as pH,
temperature, and concentration levels can affect enzyme function by completing only
one of the three tasks described above.
The response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
0
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the
concept being tested.
Note: No deductions should be taken for misspelled words or grammatical errors.
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Responses That Will Receive Credit
Part A (1 point):
• Sucrase is an enzyme that reduces the amount of energy (activation energy) needed to
break down sucrose, a disaccharide, into glucose and fructose, two monosaccharides.
Part B (1 point for the factor, 1 point for the effect):
• Factor: temperature
• Effect: High temperatures can degrade enzymes (proteins), which makes them less efficient
in the process of breaking down other molecules. If the temperature is increased enough,
sucrase is completely denatured and will not function at all, stopping or decreasing the rate
of the reaction.
• Factor: acidity (pH)
• Effect: The reaction rate will increase as the pH increases until the optimal pH is reached.
Once optimal pH is exceeded, the enzyme becomes denatured or the substrate is
degraded to the point where it cannot bind with the enzyme and the reaction rate will
decrease.
• Factor: concentration of enzyme
• Effect: As the concentration of the enzyme increases, the reaction rate will increase until the
substrate is used up. Then the reaction rate will level off.
• Factor: concentration of substrate
• Effect: As the concentration of the substrate increases, the reaction rate will increase to a
maximum where all the enzyme is being used (the reaction rate will level off beyond this
point).
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 3 points
14. The model shows a biochemical reaction utilizing sucrase.
sucrose
active site
sucrase
H
2
O
glucose
fructose
Sucrase Reaction
Part A: Explain the role of sucrase in the reaction shown.
The role of sucrase in the reaction shown is
to lesen the activation energy neded to break
sucrose down into glucose and fructose.
Part B: Identify one factor that can affect how sucrase functions, and explain what
effect this factor has on the reaction.
Factor:
Effect:
Temperature is one factor that can afect
how sucrase functions.
The efect temperature has on the reaction is
it wil denature the sucrase and stop the reaction.
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of how factors such as pH, temperature, and concentration levels can
affect enzyme function. In Part A, the response correctly explains the role of sucrase in the reaction (to lessen the activation energy
needed to break sucrose down into glucose and fructose). In Part B, the response correctly identifies one factor that can affect how
sucrase functions (Temperature) and correctly explains what effect this factor has on the reaction (it will denature the sucrase and
stop the reaction). The response is clear, complete, and correct.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 2 points
14. The model shows a biochemical reaction utilizing sucrase.
sucrose
active site
sucrase
H
2
O
glucose
fructose
Sucrase Reaction
Part A: Explain the role of sucrase in the reaction shown.
Part B: Identify one factor that can affect how sucrase functions, and explain what
effect this factor has on the reaction.
Factor:
Effect:
Temperature
Temperate can denature sucrase, causing it to
not be able to react.
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of how factors such as pH, temperature, and concentration levels can affect
enzyme function. In Part A, the response incorrectly explains the role of sucrase in the reaction (Sucrase is the active site in the
reaction) and does not receive any credit. In Part B, the response correctly identifies one factor that can affect how sucrase
functions (Temperature) and correctly explains what effect this factor has on the reaction (causing it to not be able to react).
Sucrase is the active site in the reaction
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 1 point
14. The model shows a biochemical reaction utilizing sucrase.
sucrose
active site
sucrase
H
2
O
glucose
fructose
Sucrase Reaction
Part A: Explain the role of sucrase in the reaction shown.
Sucrase in the reaction serves as a
substrate. It will take in the “enzyme”
and break it down.
Part B: Identify one factor that can affect how sucrase functions, and explain what
effect this factor has on the reaction.
Factor:
Effect:
The tempturature can effect how
sucrase functions.
If there is a tempture change the
active site can change form/shape.
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of how factors such as pH, temperature, and concentration levels can affect
enzyme function. In Part A, the response incorrectly explains the role of sucrase in the reaction (sucrase in the reaction serves as
a substrate) and does not receive any credit. In Part B, the response correctly identifies one factor that can affect how sucrase
functions (The tempturature can effect how sucrase functions.). However, the response incorrectly explains what effect this has on
the reaction (the active site can change form/shape), and the effect explanation does not receive any credit.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 0 points
PART A
Question 14
Page 1 of 2
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PART B
Question 14
Page 2 of 2
This response demonstrates a complete understanding of how inherited structures or behaviors help organisms survive and
reproduce in different environments. In Part A, the response correctly identifies one advantage dark-gray peppered moths had over
the lighter-colored moths after the industrial revolution (easier for dark-grey moths to hid from its pretodors [predators]). In Part B,
the response correctly predicts what will most likely happen to the coloration of peppered moths as pollution control measures
increase in England (there will most likely be less dark-grey moths). The response is clear, complete, and correct.
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CONSTRUCTED-RESPONSE ITEM
15. Digestion of food releases glucose into the intestine. Epithelial cells lining the intestine move
glucose between the intestine and the blood. Moving glucose from the intestine into the
epithelial cell uses active transport (process 1), but moving glucose into the blood uses passive
transport (process 2).
epithelial cell
glucose glucose
process 1 process 2
bloodintestine
Glucose Movement
Part A: Describe a similarity between process 1 and process 2.
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Describe two differences between process 1 and process 2.
Difference 1:
Difference 2:
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
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SCORING GUIDE
#15 Item Information
Alignment BIO.A.4.1.2 Depth of Knowledge 3 Mean Score 1.55
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline
Score Description
3
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of the mechanisms that
transport materials across the plasma membrane (i.e., passive transport—diffusion,
osmosis, facilitated diffusion; and active transport—pumps, endocytosis, exocytosis)
by
• describing one similarity between active transport and passive transport,
AND
• describing two differences between active transport and passive transport.
The response is clear, complete, and correct.
2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of the mechanisms that transport
materials across the plasma membrane (i.e., passive transport—diffusion, osmosis,
facilitated diffusion; and active transport—pumps, endocytosis, exocytosis) by
• describing one similarity between active transport and passive transport
AND
• describing one difference between active transport and passive transport
OR
• describing two differences between active transport and passive transport.
The response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
1
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of the mechanisms that transport
materials across the plasma membrane (i.e., passive transport—diffusion, osmosis,
facilitated diffusion; and active transport—pumps, endocytosis, exocytosis) by
• describing one similarity between active transport and passive transport
OR
• describing one difference between active transport and passive transport.
The response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
0
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the
concept being tested.
Note: No deductions should be taken for misspelled words or grammatical errors.
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Responses That Will Receive Credit
Part A (1 point):
• Both processes move materials from one side of a cell membrane to another.
• Both processes use channels to move ions across a cell membrane.
• Both processes involve ion movement.
• Both processes help a cell maintain homeostasis.
Part B (2 points):
• Active transport (process 1) uses energy (ATP), but passive transport (process 2) does not
use energy.
• Passive transport moves materials from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration (with the gradient), while active transport moves materials from an area of low
concentration to an area of high concentration (against the gradient).
• Passive transport uses diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion, but active transport
uses pumps, endocytosis, and exocytosis.
• Process 1 is transporting glucose from the intestine into the epithelial cell, while process 2
is transporting glucose from the epithelial cell into the blood.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 3 points
PART A
Question 15
Page 1 of 2
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PART B
Question 15
Page 2 of 2
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of the mechanisms that transport materials across the plasma membrane.
In Part A, the response correctly describes a similarity between process 1 and process 2 (Both processes use a protein channel to
transport glucose.). In Part B, the response correctly describes two differences between process 1 and process 2 (Process 1 . . .
requires ATP while process 2 . . . does not require ATP; Process 1 brings glucose into an area of high concentration while process 2
brings it into an area of lower concentration.). The response is clear, complete, and correct.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 2 points
PART A
Question 15
Page 1 of 2
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PART B
Question 15
Page 2 of 2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of the mechanisms that transport materials across the plasma membrane. In
Part A, the response correctly describes a similarity between process 1 and process 2 (Active transport and passive transport both
are used to get things in or out of a cell.). In Part B, the response correctly describes only one difference between process 1 and
process 2 (Active Transport uses energy to get an objest in or out of the cell, while passive transport doesnt require energy.). The
second response provided incorrectly describes a difference between process 1 and process 2 (Active transport requires the help
of a protein but passive transport does not.) and does not receive any credit.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 1 point
15. Digestion of food releases glucose into the intestine. Epithelial cells lining the intestine move
glucose between the intestine and the blood. Moving glucose from the intestine into the
epithelial cell uses active transport (process 1), but moving glucose into the blood uses passive
transport (process 2).
epithelial cell
glucose glucose
process 1 process 2
bloodintestine
Glucose Movement
Part A: Describe a similarity between process 1 and process 2.
They both move glucose.
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Describe two differences between process 1 and process 2.
Difference 1:
Difference 2:
Process 1 uses active transport.
Process 2 uses passive transport.
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of the mechanisms that transport materials across the plasma membrane.
In Part A, the response correctly describes a similarity between process 1 and process 2 (They both move glucose.). In Part B, the
response incorrectly describes only one difference between process 1 and process 2 (Process 1 uses active transport. . . . Process
2 uses passive transport.) and does not receive any credit. A second difference is not provided.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 0 points
15. Digestion of food releases glucose into the intestine. Epithelial cells lining the intestine move
glucose between the intestine and the blood. Moving glucose from the intestine into the
epithelial cell uses active transport (process 1), but moving glucose into the blood uses passive
transport (process 2).
epithelial cell
glucose glucose
process 1 process 2
bloodintestine
Glucose Movement
Part A: Describe a similarity between process 1 and process 2.
They both have energy and they use ATP
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Describe two differences between process 1 and process 2.
Difference 1:
Difference 2:
process 2 stores them while process 1
does not.
process 1 lets them go
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the mechanisms that transport materials across
the plasma membrane. In Part A, the response incorrectly describes a similarity between process 1 and process 2 (They both have
energy and they use ATP) and does not receive any credit. In Part B, the student incorrectly describes only one difference between
process 1 and process 2 (process 2 stores them while process 1 does not.). The second response for Part B (process 1 lets them
go) is not a comparison and does not receive any credit.
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BIOLOGY MODULE 1—SUMMARY DATA
MULTIPLE-CHOICE
Sample
Number
Alignment Answer Key
Depth of
Knowledge
p-value
A
p-value
B
p-value
C
p-value
D
1 BIO.A.1.1.1 B 2 8 64 14 14
2
BIO.A.1.2.1 B 2 27 49 14 10
3
BIO.A.2.2.1 C 2 9 12 41 38
4
BIO.A.2.2.2 A 2 63 12 17 8
5
BIO.A.2.2.3 D 2 8 12 20 60
6
BIO.A.2.3.2 B 2 19 47 12 22
7
BIO.A.3.1.1 D 2 15 8 11 66
8 BIO.A.3.1.1 A 2 55 15 19 11
9
BIO.A.4.1.2 A 2 55 26 12 7
10 BIO.A.4.1.3 D 2 7 13 11 69
11
BIO.A.4.2.1 D 2 33 14 13 40
12 BIO.A.1.2.2 C 2 12 12 62 14
13 BIO.A.2.3.1 B 2 19 57 13 11
CONSTRUCTED-RESPONSE
Sample
Number
Alignment Points
Depth of
Knowledge
Mean Score
14 BIO.A.2.3.2 3 2 1.16
15 BIO.A.4.1.2 3 3 1.55
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BIOLOGY MODULE 2
MULTIPLE-CHOICE ITEMS
1. Which statement best describes how DNA replication results in the conservation of genetic
information?
A. Enzymes associated with DNA replication are used over and over by the cell.
B. Each strand of DNA serves as a template for a new strand during DNA replication.
C. Nucleic acids linked to sugars twist in a specific pattern following DNA replication.
D. Random shuffling of DNA base pairs during DNA replication maintains the base pair ratios.
813414813414
Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.1.2.1
Answer Key B
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 14%
p-value B 68% (correct answer)
p-value C 10%
p-value D 8%
Option Annotations A. The recycling of enzyme molecules during DNA replication is not
responsible for conserving the sequence of nucleotides in a DNA
molecule.
B. Key: Each strand of DNA serves as a template, and the base-
pairing rule ensures that each exposed nucleotide on a DNA strand
will be paired with the correct nucleotide, conserving the original
sequence of genetic information.
C. The genetic sequence is not conserved by nucleic acids linking to
sugars and twisting into a specific pattern after the process of DNA
replication occurs.
D. DNA base pairs are not randomly shuffled during DNA replication.
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2. Use the diagram below to answer the question.
X for purple flowers
X for white flowers
homologous
pair of Z
locus for
flower color Y
Genetic Information Controlling Flower Color
The diagram shows structures that help determine the color of a certain flower. Which list best
identifies the structures labeled X, Y, and Z in the diagram?
A. X: allele
Y: flower color gene
Z: chromosome
B. X: gene
Y: flower color allele
Z: chromosome
C. X: allele
Y: flower color chromosome
Z: strand of DNA
D. X: gene
Y: flower color allele
Z: strand of DNA
869043869043
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.1.2.2
Answer Key A
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 50% (correct answer)
p-value B 24%
p-value C 13%
p-value D 13%
Option Annotations A. Key: Alleles are variations of a gene and are responsible for
determining flower color. The flower color gene is a particular
segment of DNA at a specific location on a chromosome. The
chromosome is the entire DNA molecule when it is condensed.
B. X is an allele; Y is the gene.
C. Y is not a chromosome, and a whole chromosome is not
responsible for a single trait.
D. X is an allele; Y is the gene. The whole strand of DNA is best
identified as a chromosome.
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3. An individual of a plant species shows a certain physical characteristic that requires two copies
of the same allele to be expressed. Based on this information, how would the allele for the
characteristic most likely be classified?
A. recessive
B. dominant
C. sex-linked
D. polygenic
868448868448
Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.2.1.1
Answer Key A
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 53% (correct answer)
p-value B 26%
p-value C 11%
p-value D 10%
Option Annotations A. Key: A trait that can only be expressed when two copies of the
same allele are present is most likely a recessive trait, which cannot
be expressed if a dominant allele for the gene is also present.
B. A dominant trait can be expressed with one copy of the allele.
C. Sex-linked traits are the result of genes located on a sex
chromosome and can be dominant or recessive.
D. Polygenic traits are the result of multiple genes being expressed
simultaneously.
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4. What is one important result of chromosomal crossing-over during meiosis?
A. an increase in the likelihood of having gametes in offspring that are genetically the same as
their parents
B. an increase in the amount of genetic variation within a population that can improve its
ability to survive
C. a decrease in the number of chromosome pairs that can be passed from each parent to its
offspring
D. a decrease in the frequency of genetic mutations and a limit to the diversity of traits within a
species
975129975129
Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.2.1.2
Answer Key B
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 17%
p-value B 59% (correct answer)
p-value C 13%
p-value D 11%
Option Annotations A. Crossing-over results in new combinations of genes in the unique
gametes produced at the end of meiosis.
B. Key: Increased genetic variation improves the likelihood that a
population can survive changing environmental conditions.
C. Crossing-over does not affect the number of chromosomes that are
passed from parent to offspring.
D. Crossing-over does not affect the frequency of random changes to
the DNA sequence and does not limit the diversity of traits that are
expressed within a species.
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5. Antibiotics are medicines that slow the growth of disease-causing bacteria. One of the ways
that antibiotics work is by interfering with the normal functioning of bacterial ribosomes. How
does this interference reduce the rate of bacterial reproduction?
A. by preventing the bacterial cell from synthesizing essential proteins
B. by increasing the rate at which bacterial cells go through the cell cycle
C. by blocking the bacterial cell’s access to nutrients from the host organism
D. by allowing harmful substances to enter the bacterial cell through its cell membrane
975131975131
Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.2.2.2
Answer Key A
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 56% (correct answer)
p-value B 9%
p-value C 25%
p-value D 10%
Option Annotations A. Key: Ribosomes are responsible for synthesizing proteins.
B. Ribosomes do not control the rate of the cell cycle.
C. Ribosomes are not involved with accessing or limiting cellular
nutrients.
D. Ribosomes do not regulate the movement of substances across a
cellular membrane.
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6. Use the diagram below to answer the question.
Normal Cell DNA
CAT CCC AAC GGA CCT
Mutated Cell DNA
CAT CCC CAA CGG ACC T
Which genetic mutation is shown in the diagram?
A. a point mutation caused by a base deletion
B. a point mutation caused by a base substitution
C. a frameshift mutation caused by a base insertion
D. a frameshift mutation caused by a base substitution
809197809197
Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.2.3.1
Answer Key C
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 6%
p-value B 13%
p-value C 65% (correct answer)
p-value D 16%
Option Annotations A. A deletion mutation would result in a shorter sequence of bases,
not a longer sequence.
B. A substitution mutation does not change the number of nitrogen
bases.
C. Key: An additional C nitrogenous base was inserted before the third
codon, causing the reading frame to shift over by one base.
D. The number of bases increased by one, which is the result of an
insertion.
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7. Use the diagram below to answer the question.
incubate
bacteria
population
transfer sample to
agar with antibiotics
independent colonies represent
resistant mutants
Results of a Genetic Mutation
The diagram shows several bacterial colonies that resulted when individual bacteria experienced
a mutation. Which statement best describes how these colonies could change the genotypic
makeup of future generations?
A. They could teach offspring to develop antibiotic resistance.
B. They could prey upon bacteria that are not antibiotic resistant.
C. They could pass on genes for antibiotic resistance to offspring.
D. They could be consumed by bacteria that are not antibiotic resistant.
741017741017
Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.3.1.3
Answer Key C
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 13%
p-value B 8%
p-value C 71% (correct answer)
p-value D 8%
Option Annotations A. Antibiotic resistance is an inherited trait, not a learned behavior.
B. Preying upon other bacteria does not change the genotypic
makeup of the bacterial offspring.
C. Key: The independent colonies of mutant bacteria are resistant
to the antibiotic in the agar, so they can survive and reproduce,
passing on their resistant genes to their offspring.
D. Organisms that are not antibiotic resistant would die. Organisms
that are eaten are unable to produce future generations.
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8. Use the drawing below to answer the question.
Archaeopteryx
This drawing is a reconstruction of the extinct dinosaur Archaeopteryx, based on fossil
evidence. Archaeopteryx had many birdlike structures, including wings and feathers. Which
principle of evolution does this reconstruction of Archaeopteryx support?
A. New types of organisms develop in stages from earlier organisms.
B. Similar selection pressures will eventually yield similar adaptations.
C. New types of organisms cannot develop until earlier organisms become extinct.
D. All possible adaptations appear repeatedly by chance over a long enough timeline.
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.3.2.1
Answer Key A
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 52% (correct answer)
p-value B 22%
p-value C 6%
p-value D 20%
Option Annotations A. Key: The evolutionary development of birds from dinosaurs
occurred in small incremental changes over time, as evidenced by
Archaeopteryx’s adaptation of wings and feathers.
B. Similar selection pressures do not result in similar mutations,
resulting in advantageous traits in organisms.
C. Sequential development of new species can occur without the
extinction of previous species.
D. The expression of advantageous traits is not cyclical and depends
on random mutations.
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9. Use the chart below to answer the question.
Students’ Statements
Student Statement
W
If a cell is placed in a saltwater solution, the
cell will shrink.
X
Cells placed in water with red dye turned red
after several hours.
Y
If a cell is placed in distilled water without ions,
the cell will swell.
Z
Cells are the basic unit of structure in all
organisms and the basic unit of reproduction.
Students presented the statements shown in the chart. Which student’s statement would best
be characterized as a scientific theory?
A. student W
B. student X
C. student Y
D. student Z
809060809060
Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.3.3.1
Answer Key D
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 16%
p-value B 14%
p-value C 18%
p-value D 52% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. Student W’s statement is best characterized as a testable
hypothesis.
B. Student X’s statement is best characterized as an observation.
C. Student Y’s statement is best characterized as a testable
hypothesis.
D. Key: Student Z’s statement is best characterized as a scientific
theory because it is an accepted explanation of a key principle of
life that has been repeatedly tested and validated.
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10. Use the illustration below to answer the question.
Lake Trout
A researcher is studying relationships within a lake. A disease is killing off lake trout. The
researcher wants to find out how this event will affect the lake trout’s predators. Which
statement best describes the researcher’s work in terms of ecological organization?
A. The researcher is studying how change in an ecosystem will affect the biome.
B. The researcher is studying how change in a community will affect the organism.
C. The researcher is studying how change in an organism will affect the population.
D. The researcher is studying how change in a population will affect the community.
965895965895
Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.4.1.1
Answer Key D
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 10%
p-value B 11%
p-value C 24%
p-value D 55% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. The researcher is not studying abiotic factors.
B. The change is to the population of lake trout, not all the interacting
populations in the ecosystem, and the effect impacts more than an
individual organism.
C. The change being studied is in more than a single lake trout, and
the measured effect is on the predator population, not the lake trout
population.
D. Key: The researcher is studying how a change in organisms of
the same species (lake trout population) will affect organisms
of another species (predator population). A community is the
ecological level of organization characterized by the interactions of
different species.
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11. Use the diagram below to answer the question.
Sun
soil
rock
lake
river
grasses
tree
rain
Part of a River Ecosystem
deer
The diagram shows part of a river ecosystem. Which statement best describes a relationship
between a biotic part and an abiotic part of this ecosystem?
A. The rain erodes the rock.
B. The river moves water into the lake.
C. The grasses use energy from the Sun to grow.
D. The grasses provide a food source for the deer.
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Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.4.1.2
Answer Key C
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 9%
p-value B 5%
p-value C 60% (correct answer)
p-value D 26%
Option Annotations A. Rain and rocks are both abiotic.
B. The water in the river and in the lake is abiotic.
C. Key: Grasses are plants, which are biotic, and the Sun is an abiotic
part of the ecosystem.
D. Grasses and deer are both biotic.
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Directions: Use the information presented on page 62 to answer questions12 and13.
Hummingbirds
Hummingbirds are the smallest warm-blooded animals on Earth. They get their name from the sound
made by flapping their wings, which they can do 10 to 80 times per second. Hummingbirds are the
only birds that can hover and fly backward. Nectar from flowers and small flying insects are their
primary sources of food. Their nests are often preyed upon by larger birds, snakes, and mammals,
while adult hummingbirds are prey to cats, larger birds, frogs, spiders, and praying mantises.
Hummingbird
Hummingbirds have the highest metabolic rate of any vertebrate and the highest rate of energy
consumption of any animal. Their hearts can beat 1,200 times per minute. Hummingbirds have
to constantly eat due to their high energy requirements. Many hummingbirds go into torpor, a
hibernation-like sleep, at night so they do not starve. During torpor, their heart rate drops to between
50 and 180 beats per minute.
Today, hummingbirds live only in North and South America. The oldest hummingbird fossils that have
been found are from southern Germany in Europe. The fossils are about 30 million years old. Based
on fossil evidence, it is thought that hummingbirds diverged from a related group of small-sized birds
that lived in Europe and Asia about 42 million years ago. About 22 million years ago, the common
ancestor of hummingbirds migrated to North and South America. Today, there are 338 hummingbird
species, which are divided into nine groups, based on differences in size, shape, habitat, and
feeding method. Different hummingbird species utilize different niches. Bright-colored feathers, body
decorations, courtship displays, and complex calls are evidence that sexual selection has played a
part in hummingbird evolution. Hummingbirds are still developing into new species. One scientist
hypothesizes that the number of hummingbird species could double in the next several million years.
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12. Which factor would most likely contribute to the development of new hummingbird species?
A. having the ability to hover
B. having a common ancestor
C. having a high rate of metabolism
D. having different courtship displays
971666971666
Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.3.1.2
Answer Key D
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 8%
p-value B 30%
p-value C 15%
p-value D 47% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. All hummingbird species can already hover, so that trait is unlikely
to contribute to the development of a new hummingbird species.
B. Having a common ancestor does not contribute to the development
of a new hummingbird species.
C. An increased rate of metabolism is unlikely to affect reproductive
outcomes in such a way as to introduce a reproductively isolated
group of hummingbirds.
D. Key: Different courtship displays are behavioral differences that
could affect which individuals mate and the frequency of certain
traits being passed to offspring. Over a long period of time, small
changes could accumulate until a separate group of hummingbirds
becomes reproductively isolated, potentially leading to speciation.
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13. Which food chain best describes how energy flows in an urban ecosystem that includes
hummingbirds?
A. cats hummingbirds insects plants
B. cats insects hummingbirds plants
C. plants
insects hummingbirds cats
D. plants
cats hummingbirds insects
971667971667
Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.4.2.1
Answer Key C
Depth of Knowledge 2
p-value A 18%
p-value B 4%
p-value C 75% (correct answer)
p-value D 3%
Option Annotations A. This food chain is reversed and shows energy flowing from
consumers to producers.
B. Cats are not the source of energy, and plants are not consumers.
C. Key: Energy in this urban ecosystem flows from plants (producers)
to insects (primary consumers) to hummingbirds (secondary
consumers) to cats (tertiary consumers).
D. Hummingbirds do not consume cats.
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CONSTRUCTED-RESPONSE ITEM
14. A student is observing a cell under a microscope. The cell is growing, but its genetic material
has not begun to replicate nor is the cell preparing for division. The student is referencing a
model of the cell cycle while observing the cell.
M
S
G
1
G
2
Cell Cycle
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
mitosis
Part A: Identify the numbered area of the model that represents the student’s
observations.
Go to the next page to finish question 14.
GO ON
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14. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Describe two events that must take place during interphase before the cell
can enter mitosis.
Event 1:
Event 2:
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SCORING GUIDE
#14 Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.1.1.1 Depth of Knowledge 3 Mean Score 1.34
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline
Score Description
3
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of key events that occur during
the cell cycle by
• identifying the part of the cell cycle that represents a cell growing but not
replicating or preparing for cell division
AND
• describing two events that take place during interphase before the cell can
enter mitosis.
The response is clear, complete, and correct.
2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of key events that occur during the
cell cycle by
• identifying the part of the cell cycle that represents a cell growing but not
replicating or preparing for cell division
AND
• describing one event that takes place during interphase before the cell can
enter mitosis
OR
• describing two events that take place during interphase before the cell can
enter mitosis.
The response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
1
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of key events that occur during
the cell cycle by
• identifying the part of the cell cycle that represents a cell growing but not
replicating or preparing for cell division
OR
• describing one event that takes place during interphase before the cell can
enter mitosis.
The response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
0
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the
concept being tested.
Note: No deductions should be taken for misspelled words or grammatical errors.
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Responses That Will Receive Credit
Part A (1 point): A response indicating that area 6 (G
1
) represents the time when a cell is
growing but not replicating or dividing.
Part B (2 points): Any two events that take place during interphase before the cell can enter
mitosis. Each event is worth 1 point.
• DNA replication occurs (DNA synthesis, DNA duplication, chromosomes become
chromatids).
• Cell growth occurs.
• New organelles are made.
• Protein synthesis occurs.
• The cell cycle process goes through checkpoints to make sure everything is working
properly.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 3 points
14. A student is observing a cell under a microscope. The cell is growing, but its genetic material
has not begun to replicate nor is the cell preparing for division. The student is referencing a
model of the cell cycle while observing the cell.
M
S
G
1
G
2
Cell Cycle
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
mitosis
Part A: Identify the numbered area of the model that represents the student’s
observations.
The cell he is observing is in phase 6
Go to the next page to finish question 14.
GO ON
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14. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Describe two events that must take place during interphase before the cell
can enter mitosis.
Event 1:
Event 2:
First, the cell has to replicate its DNA so
it has another set after it splits
Then, the cell has to make extra
organells so each new cell will have a set.
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of key events that occur during the cell cycle. In Part A, the response
correctly identifies the numbered area of the model that represents the student’s observations (The cell he is observing is in phase
6). In Part B, the response correctly describes two events that must take place during interphase before the cell can enter mitosis
(the cell has to replicate its DNA; the cell has to make extra organells). The response is clear, complete, and correct.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 2 points
PART A
Question 14
Page 1 of 2
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PART B
Question 14
Page 2 of 2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of key events that occur during the cell cycle. In Part A, the response
incorrectly identifies the numbered area of the model that represents the student’s observations (8 represents the student’s
observations.) and does not receive any credit. In Part B, the response correctly identifies two events that must take place during
interphase before the cell can enter mitosis (The cell must grow; The cell must copy the DNA).
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 1 point
14. A student is observing a cell under a microscope. The cell is growing, but its genetic material
has not begun to replicate nor is the cell preparing for division. The student is referencing a
model of the cell cycle while observing the cell.
M
S
G
1
G
2
Cell Cycle
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
mitosis
Part A: Identify the numbered area of the model that represents the student’s
observations.
1
Go to the next page to finish question 14.
GO ON
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14. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Describe two events that must take place during interphase before the cell
can enter mitosis.
Event 1:
Event 2:
The cell must disolve the nuclear envelope.
The cell must replicate its DNA.
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of key events that occur during the cell cycle. In Part A, the response
incorrectly identifies the numbered area of the model that represents the student’s observations (1) and does not receive any credit.
In Part B, the response correctly identifies only one event that must take place during interphase before the cell can enter mitosis
(The cell must replicate its DNA.). The other response provided incorrectly identifies an event that must take place during interphase
before the cell can enter mitosis (The cell must disolve the nuclear envelope.) and does not receive any credit.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 0 points
PART A
Question 14
Page 1 of 2
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PART B
Question 14
Page 2 of 2
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of key events that occur during the cell cycle. In
Part A, the response incorrectly identifies the numbered area of the model that represents the student’s observations (1-5 are steps
in mitosis) and does not receive any credit. In Part B, the response incorrectly identifies two events that must take place during
interphase before the cell can enter mitosis (the cells need to split apart into 2; the cells need to clone) and does not receive any
credit.
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CONSTRUCTED-RESPONSE ITEM
15. A simplified aquatic energy pyramid is shown. It shows the flow of energy transferred in over a
year within an aquatic community.
large fish
small fish
6,000 kJ/m
2
zooplankton
60,000 kJ/m
2
phytoplankton
Energy Pyramid for an Aquatic Community
Part A: Identify the primary consumer in this community.
Part B: The amount of energy transferred from the phytoplankton to the
zooplankton is shown to be 6,000 kJ/m
2
. Determine the amount of energy
that will end up as biomass in the body of the large fish.
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part C: Describe what may have happened to the 54,000 kJ/m
2
of energy
that was not transferred from the phytoplankton to the bodies of the
zooplankton.
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
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SCORING GUIDE
#15 Item Information
Alignment BIO.B.4.2.1 Depth of Knowledge 3 Mean Score 1.49
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline
Score Description
3
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of how energy flows through an
ecosystem by
• identifying the primary consumer in the given energy pyramid,
AND
• determining the amount of energy that will be converted into the biomass of
the large fish in the energy pyramid,
AND
• describing what happened to the energy not transferred from the
phytoplankton to the zooplankton in the energy pyramid.
The response is clear, complete, and correct.
2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of how energy flows through an
ecosystem by fulfilling two of the bullets under the 3-point response. The response
may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
1
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of how energy flows through an
ecosystem by fulfilling one of the bullets under the 3-point response. The response
may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
0
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the
concept being tested.
Note: No deductions should be taken for misspelled words or grammatical errors.
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Responses That Will Receive Credit
Part A (1 point): One point for identifying zooplankton as the primary consumer in this
community.
Part B (1 point): One point for determining that the amount of energy that will end up as
biomass in the body of the large fish is 60 kJ/m
2
.
Part C (1 point): Any one of the following:
• The energy was lost in respiration.
• It was lost as waste.
• It was lost as heat.
• It was used by the organism.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 3 points
15. A simplified aquatic energy pyramid is shown. It shows the flow of energy transferred in over a
year within an aquatic community.
large fish
small fish
6,000 kJ/m
2
zooplankton
60,000 kJ/m
2
phytoplankton
Energy Pyramid for an Aquatic Community
Part A: Identify the primary consumer in this community.
Zooplankton
Part B: The amount of energy transferred from the phytoplankton to the
zooplankton is shown to be 6,000 kJ/m
2
. Determine the amount of energy
that will end up as biomass in the body of the large fish.
60 KJ/m
2
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part C: Describe what may have happened to the 54,000 kJ/m
2
of energy
that was not transferred from the phytoplankton to the bodies of the
zooplankton.
It would be the waste
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of how energy flows through an ecosystem. In Part A, the response correctly
identifies the primary consumer in the energy pyramid (Zooplankton). In Part B, the response correctly determines the amount of
energy that will be converted into the biomass in the large fish in the energy pyramid (60 KJ/m
2
). In Part C, the response correctly
describes what may have happened to the 54,000 kJ/m
2
that was not transferred from the phytoplankton to the bodies of the
zooplankton (It would be the waste). The response is clear, complete, and correct.
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 2 points
PARTS A and B
Question 15
Page 1 of 2
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PART C
Question 15
Page 2 of 2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of how energy flows through an ecosystem. In Part A, the response incorrectly
identifies the primary consumer in the energy pyramid (the Large Fish) and does not receive any credit. In Part B, the response
correctly determines the amount of energy that will be converted into the biomass in the large fish in the energy pyramid
(60 kj/m^2 ). In Part C, the response correctly describes what may have happened to the 54,000 kJ/m
2
that was not transferred
from the phytoplankton to the bodies of the zooplankton (The energy was lost in heat.).
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 1 point
15. A simplified aquatic energy pyramid is shown. It shows the flow of energy transferred in over a
year within an aquatic community.
large fish
small fish
6,000 kJ/m
2
zooplankton
60,000 kJ/m
2
phytoplankton
Energy Pyramid for an Aquatic Community
Part A: Identify the primary consumer in this community.
Large fish
Part B: The amount of energy transferred from the phytoplankton to the
zooplankton is shown to be 6,000 kJ/m
2
. Determine the amount of energy
that will end up as biomass in the body of the large fish.
60
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part C: Describe what may have happened to the 54,000 kJ/m
2
of energy
that was not transferred from the phytoplankton to the bodies of the
zooplankton.
It was consumed by the organims higher in the pyramid.
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of how energy flows through an ecosystem. In Part A, the response
incorrectly identifies the primary consumer in the energy pyramid (Large fish) and does not receive any credit. In Part B, the
response correctly determines the amount of energy that will be converted into the biomass in the large fish in the energy pyramid
(60). In Part C, the response incorrectly describes what may have happened to the 54,000 kJ/m
2
that was not transferred from the
phytoplankton to the bodies of the zooplankton (It was consumed by the organims higher in the pyramid.) and does not receive any
credit.
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 0 points
15. A simplified aquatic energy pyramid is shown. It shows the flow of energy transferred in over a
year within an aquatic community.
large fish
small fish
6,000 kJ/m
2
zooplankton
60,000 kJ/m
2
phytoplankton
Energy Pyramid for an Aquatic Community
Part A: Identify the primary consumer in this community.
Large fish
Part B: The amount of energy transferred from the phytoplankton to the
zooplankton is shown to be 6,000 kJ/m
2
. Determine the amount of energy
that will end up as biomass in the body of the large fish.
600 KJ/M
2
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part C: Describe what may have happened to the 54,000 kJ/m
2
of energy
that was not transferred from the phytoplankton to the bodies of the
zooplankton.
The zooplankton does not need as much
energy as the phytoplankton.
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding about how energy flows through an ecosystem.
In Part A, the response incorrectly identifies the primary consumer in the energy pyramid (Large fish) and does not receive any
credit. In Part B, the response incorrectly determines the amount of energy that will be converted into the biomass in the large fish
in the energy pyramid (600 KJ/M
2
) and does not receive any credit. In Part C, the response incorrectly describes what may have
happened to the 54,000 kJ/m
2
that was not transferred from the phytoplankton to the bodies of the zooplankton (The zooplankton
does not need as much energy as the phytoplankton.) and does not receive any credit.
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
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BIOLOGY MODULE 2—SUMMARY DATA
MULTIPLE-CHOICE
Sample
Number
Alignment Answer Key
Depth of
Knowledge
p-value
A
p-value
B
p-value
C
p-value
D
1 BIO.B.1.2.1 B 2 14 68 10 8
2 BIO.B.1.2.2 A 2 50 24 13 13
3 BIO.B.2.1.1 A 2 53 26 11 10
4 BIO.B.2.1.2 B 2 17 59 13 11
5 BIO.B.2.2.2 A 2 56 9 25 10
6 BIO.B.2.3.1 C 2 6 13 65 16
7 BIO.B.3.1.3 C 2 13 8 71 8
8 BIO.B.3.2.1 A 2 52 22 6 20
9 BIO.B.3.3.1 D 2 16 14 18 52
10 BIO.B.4.1.1 D 2 10 11 24 55
11 BIO.B.4.1.2 C 2 9 5 60 26
12 BIO.B.3.1.2 D 2 8 30 15 47
13 BIO.B.4.2.1 C 2 18 4 75 3
CONSTRUCTED-RESPONSE
Sample
Number
Alignment Points
Depth of
Knowledge
Mean Score
14 BIO.B.1.1.1 3 3 1.34
15 BIO.B.4.2.1 3 3 1.49
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Keystone Exams
Biology
Item and Scoring Sampler 2023
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